Computer
Operating Systems
## **Part 1: Fundamentals and Architecture (1-25)**
**1. What is the primary function of an operating system?**
a) Execute user programs
b) Make solving user problems easier
c) Manage computer resources
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**2. Which of these is NOT an operating system function?**
a) Memory management
b) Disk defragmentation
c) Process management
d) File management
**Answer: b) Disk defragmentation** (It's a utility, not a
core OS function)
**3. The kernel of an operating system is:**
a) The user interface
b) The outermost layer
c) The core component managing hardware
d) An application launcher
**Answer: c) The core component managing hardware**
**4. Which type of operating system allows multiple users to
work simultaneously?**
a) Single-user
b) Multi-user
c) Batch processing
d) Real-time
**Answer: b) Multi-user**
**5. In a real-time operating system, the most important
requirement is:**
a) High throughput
b) Minimizing response time
c) Maximizing CPU utilization
d) User-friendly interface
**Answer: b) Minimizing response time**
**6. Which operating system is open-source?**
a) Windows 10
b) macOS
c) Linux
d) iOS
**Answer: c) Linux**
**7. The first screen you see after booting your computer is
called:**
a) Desktop
b) Login screen
c) BIOS screen
d) Command prompt
**Answer: b) Login screen**
**8. What does BIOS stand for?**
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Binary Input Output System
c) Basic Integrated Operating System
d) Binary Integrated Operating System
**Answer: a) Basic Input Output System**
**9. Which component loads first when a computer boots?**
a) Operating system
b) Device drivers
c) BIOS/UEFI
d) Applications
**Answer: c) BIOS/UEFI**
**10. What is UEFI?**
a) A type of RAM
b) A successor to BIOS
c) A file system
d) A processor type
**Answer: b) A successor to BIOS**
**11. Which operating system uses the NT kernel?**
a) Linux
b) macOS
c) Windows
d) Android
**Answer: c) Windows**
**12. The Darwin kernel forms the basis of which operating
system?**
a) Windows
b) Linux
c) macOS/iOS
d) Chrome OS
**Answer: c) macOS/iOS**
**13. Which architecture does Linux use?**
a) Monolithic kernel
b) Microkernel
c) Hybrid kernel
d) Exokernel
**Answer: a) Monolithic kernel**
**14. In a microkernel architecture, where are device
drivers located?**
a) In kernel space
b) In user space
c) In hardware
d) In BIOS
**Answer: b) In user space**
**15. Which of these is a single-tasking operating system?**
a) MS-DOS
b) Windows 10
c) Linux
d) macOS
**Answer: a) MS-DOS**
**16. System calls provide an interface between:**
a) Two applications
b) Hardware and software
c) Process and operating system
d) User and computer
**Answer: c) Process and operating system**
**17. Which is NOT a type of system call?**
a) Process control
b) File management
c) Device management
c) Memory defragmentation
**Answer: d) Memory defragmentation**
**18. A trap is:**
a) A software interrupt
b) A hardware interrupt
c) A memory error
d) A disk error
**Answer: a) A software interrupt**
**19. Which mode allows unrestricted access to hardware?**
a) User mode
b) Kernel mode
c) Protected mode
d) Safe mode
**Answer: b) Kernel mode**
**20. Virtualization allows:**
a) Multiple OS to run on single hardware
b) Faster boot time
c) Better graphics
d) Smaller file sizes
**Answer: a) Multiple OS to run on single hardware**
**21. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on:**
a) Host operating system
b) Bare metal hardware
c) Virtual machine
d) Container
**Answer: b) Bare metal hardware**
**22. Docker uses which technology for isolation?**
a) Virtual machines
b) Hypervisors
c) Containers
d) Emulation
**Answer: c) Containers**
**23. Which is NOT an operating system service?**
a) Program execution
b) I/O operations
c) File system manipulation
d) Application development
**Answer: d) Application development**
**24. CLI stands for:**
a) Command Line Interface
b) Computer Language Interface
c) Control Line Input
d) Central Logic Interface
**Answer: a) Command Line Interface**
**25. GUI stands for:**
a) Graphical User Interface
b) General User Interface
c) Graphical Utility Interface
d) General Utility Interface
**Answer: a) Graphical User Interface**
---
## **Part 2: Process Management (26-50)**
**26. A program in execution is called:**
a) Process
b) Thread
c) Task
d) Job
**Answer: a) Process**
**27. Which is NOT part of a process control block (PCB)?**
a) Process ID
b) CPU registers
c) Program counter
d) File contents
**Answer: d) File contents**
**28. The state of a process waiting for I/O operation is:**
a) Running
b) Ready
c) Waiting/Blocked
d) Terminated
**Answer: c) Waiting/Blocked**
**29. Process scheduling is done by:**
a) Short-term scheduler
b) Long-term scheduler
c) Medium-term scheduler
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**30. Which scheduler is also called the CPU scheduler?**
a) Short-term scheduler
b) Long-term scheduler
c) Medium-term scheduler
d) Job scheduler
**Answer: a) Short-term scheduler**
**31. In FCFS scheduling, which process gets CPU first?**
a) Shortest process
b) Process with highest priority
c) Process that arrives first
d) Random process
**Answer: c) Process that arrives first**
**32. Which scheduling algorithm can cause starvation?**
a) FCFS
b) Round Robin
c) SJF (Shortest Job First)
d) All of the above
**Answer: c) SJF (Shortest Job First)**
**33. In Round Robin scheduling, each process gets:**
a) Variable time quantum
b) Fixed time quantum
c) Unlimited time
d) Priority-based time
**Answer: b) Fixed time quantum**
**34. Context switching is:**
a) Switching CPU to another process
b) Changing process state
c) Loading program from disk
d) Saving files
**Answer: a) Switching CPU to another process**
**35. A thread is also called:**
a) Heavyweight process
b) Lightweight process
c) Main process
d) Child process
**Answer: b) Lightweight process**
**36. Which is NOT an advantage of threads?**
a) Responsiveness
b) Resource sharing
c) Economy
d) Increased security
**Answer: d) Increased security**
**37. In user-level threads, scheduling is done by:**
a) Kernel
b) Thread library
c) Hardware
d) User
**Answer: b) Thread library**
**38. Process synchronization is needed when:**
a) Multiple processes access shared data
b) Single process runs
c) No shared resources exist
d) All processes are independent
**Answer: a) Multiple processes access shared data**
**39. The critical section problem requires:**
a) Mutual exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded waiting
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**40. Semaphore is a:**
a) Hardware device
b) Software solution
c) Programming language
d) File type
**Answer: b) Software solution**
**41. A binary semaphore can have values:**
a) 0 and 1 only
b) 0 to n
c) -1 to 1
d) Any integer
**Answer: a) 0 and 1 only**
**42. The dining philosophers problem illustrates:**
a) Deadlock
b) Starvation
c) Synchronization
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**43. Deadlock occurs when:**
a) Process is waiting for I/O
b) Multiple processes wait for resources held by each other
c) CPU is idle
d) Memory is full
**Answer: b) Multiple processes wait for resources held by
each other**
**44. Which is NOT a condition for deadlock?**
a) Mutual exclusion
b) Hold and wait
c) No preemption
d) Starvation
**Answer: d) Starvation**
**45. Banker's algorithm is used for:**
a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock avoidance
c) Deadlock detection
d) Deadlock recovery
**Answer: b) Deadlock avoidance**
**46. Inter-process communication (IPC) methods include:**
a) Shared memory
b) Message passing
c) Pipes
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**47. A pipe is used for communication between:**
a) Processes on different computers
b) Related processes
c) Threads in same process
d) Kernel and hardware
**Answer: b) Related processes**
**48. Which IPC is fastest?**
a) Shared memory
b) Message passing
c) Pipes
d) Sockets
**Answer: a) Shared memory**
**49. Race condition occurs when:**
a) Multiple processes access shared data concurrently
b) Process waits for I/O
c) CPU is idle
d) Memory is fragmented
**Answer: a) Multiple processes access shared data
concurrently**
**50. A monitor is:**
a) Hardware device
b) High-level synchronization construct
c) Display screen
d) Process state
**Answer: b) High-level synchronization construct**
---
## **Part 3: Memory Management (51-75)**
**51. The main memory is also called:**
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Cache
d) Virtual memory
**Answer: b) RAM**
**52. Logical address is generated by:**
a) CPU
b) Memory Management Unit (MMU)
c) Operating system
d) Compiler
**Answer: a) CPU**
**53. Physical address is generated by:**
a) CPU
b) MMU
c) Operating system
d) Compiler
**Answer: b) MMU**
**54. Which memory allocation method suffers from external
fragmentation?**
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Contiguous allocation
d) Virtual memory
**Answer: c) Contiguous allocation**
**55. In paging, memory is divided into fixed-size blocks
called:**
a) Segments
b) Frames
c) Pages
d) Both b and c
**Answer: d) Both b and c** (Frames in physical memory,
pages in logical memory)
**56. The data structure used in paging is:**
a) Page table
b) Segment table
c) Free list
d) Stack
**Answer: a) Page table**
**57. In segmentation, memory is divided into:**
a) Fixed-size blocks
b) Variable-size blocks
c) Equal blocks
d) Random blocks
**Answer: b) Variable-size blocks**
**58. TLB stands for:**
a) Translation Lookaside Buffer
b) Temporary Location Buffer
c) Translation Logical Buffer
d) Temporary Lookup Buffer
**Answer: a) Translation Lookaside Buffer**
**59. TLB is used to:**
a) Store recently accessed page table entries
b) Store files
c) Cache CPU instructions
d) Manage disk space
**Answer: a) Store recently accessed page table entries**
**60. A page fault occurs when:**
a) Page is corrupted
b) Page is not in main memory
c) Page table is full
d) TLB miss occurs
**Answer: b) Page is not in main memory**
**61. Virtual memory allows:**
a) Programs larger than physical memory
b) Faster CPU speed
c) More disk space
d) Better graphics
**Answer: a) Programs larger than physical memory**
**62. Which page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady's
anomaly?**
a) FIFO
b) Optimal
c) LRU
d) MRU
**Answer: a) FIFO**
**63. In LRU page replacement, which page is replaced?**
a) First in
b) Least recently used
c) Most recently used
d) Random
**Answer: b) Least recently used**
**64. Thrashing occurs when:**
a) CPU is idle
b) Excessive page faults slow down system
c) Memory is full
d) Disk is fragmented
**Answer: b) Excessive page faults slow down system**
**65. Working set model is used to:**
a) Prevent thrashing
b) Increase CPU speed
c) Manage files
d) Schedule processes
**Answer: a) Prevent thrashing**
**66. Which is NOT a memory allocation algorithm?**
a) First-fit
b) Best-fit
c) Worst-fit
d) Quick-fit
**Answer: d) Quick-fit**
**67. In buddy system, memory blocks are powers of:**
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
**Answer: a) 2**
**68. Swapping is:**
a) Moving process from memory to disk
b) Moving pages within memory
c) Changing CPU context
d) File transfer
**Answer: a) Moving process from memory to disk**
**69. Memory protection is achieved using:**
a) Base and limit registers
b) Page tables
c) Segmentation
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**70. Cache memory is:**
a) Slower than RAM
b) Faster than RAM
c) Same speed as RAM
d) Part of disk
**Answer: b) Faster than RAM**
**71. Spatial locality refers to:**
a) Accessing nearby memory locations
b) Accessing same location repeatedly
c) Accessing random locations
d) Accessing disk locations
**Answer: a) Accessing nearby memory locations**
**72. Temporal locality refers to:**
a) Accessing nearby memory locations
b) Accessing same location repeatedly
c) Accessing random locations
d) Accessing disk locations
**Answer: b) Accessing same location repeatedly**
**73. Which memory is volatile?**
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Hard disk
d) SSD
**Answer: a) RAM**
**74. ROM stands for:**
a) Read Only Memory
b) Random Only Memory
c) Read Optional Memory
d) Random Optional Memory
**Answer: a) Read Only Memory**
**75. EEPROM stands for:**
a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
b) Electrically Enabled Programmable Read Only Memory
c) Electronically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
d) Electrically Executable Programmable Read Only Memory
**Answer: a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only
Memory**
---
## **Part 4: Storage and File Systems (76-100)**
**76. The file system resides on:**
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Secondary storage
d) Cache
**Answer: c) Secondary storage**
**77. Which is NOT a file operation?**
a) Create
b) Delete
c) Read
d) Defragment
**Answer: d) Defragment**
**78. File attributes do NOT include:**
a) Name
b) Size
c) Location
d) Color
**Answer: d) Color**
**79. Access methods for files include:**
a) Sequential
b) Direct
c) Indexed
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**80. Directory structure that allows sharing subdirectories
is:**
a) Single-level
b) Two-level
c) Tree-structured
d) Acyclic graph
**Answer: d) Acyclic graph**
**81. Absolute pathname starts with:**
a) Current directory
b) Parent directory
c) Root directory
d) Home directory
**Answer: c) Root directory**
**82. In UNIX, which symbol represents home directory?**
a) /
b) ~
c) .
d) ..
**Answer: b) ~**
**83. File allocation methods include:**
a) Contiguous
b) Linked
c) Indexed
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**84. In linked allocation, each file block contains:**
a) Data only
b) Data and pointer to next block
c) Index
d) File name
**Answer: b) Data and pointer to next block**
**85. FAT stands for:**
a) File Allocation Table
b) File Access Table
c) File Allocation Technique
d) File Access Technique
**Answer: a) File Allocation Table**
**86. Inode in UNIX contains:**
a) File data
b) File metadata
c) Directory contents
d) File names
**Answer: b) File metadata**
**87. Which file system is used by Windows?**
a) ext4
b) NTFS
c) HFS+
d) APFS
**Answer: b) NTFS**
**88. Which file system is used by Linux?**
a) NTFS
b) FAT32
c) ext4
d) HFS+
**Answer: c) ext4**
**89. Disk scheduling aims to:**
a) Minimize seek time
b) Maximize throughput
c) Provide fair access
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**90. In FCFS disk scheduling, requests are served:**
a) In order of arrival
b) By shortest seek time first
c) By scanning
d) By C-SCAN
**Answer: a) In order of arrival**
**91. SSTF stands for:**
a) Shortest Seek Time First
b) Simple Seek Time First
c) Shortest Service Time First
d) Simple Service Time First
**Answer: a) Shortest Seek Time First**
**92. In SCAN algorithm, the disk arm:**
a) Moves only inward
b) Moves only outward
c) Moves both directions
d) Moves randomly
**Answer: c) Moves both directions**
**93. RAID stands for:**
a) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
b) Random Array of Independent Disks
c) Redundant Array of Integrated Disks
d) Random Array of Integrated Disks
**Answer: a) Redundant Array of Independent Disks**
**94. RAID 0 provides:**
a) Striping without parity
b) Mirroring
c) Striping with parity
d) Mirroring with striping
**Answer: a) Striping without parity**
**95. RAID 1 provides:**
a) Striping without parity
b) Mirroring
c) Striping with parity
d) Mirroring with striping
**Answer: b) Mirroring**
**96. Journaling file systems:**
a) Keep log of changes
b) Are faster than non-journaling
c) Use less space
d) Don't need backup
**Answer: a) Keep log of changes**
**97. Defragmentation is done to:**
a) Reduce seek time
b) Increase disk space
c) Fix bad sectors
d) Format disk
**Answer: a) Reduce seek time**
**98. Formatting a disk creates:**
a) Partitions
b) File system
c) Bad sectors
d) Cache
**Answer: b) File system**
**99. Bad sector is:**
a) Fast sector
b) Corrupted sector
c) Empty sector
d) System sector
**Answer: b) Corrupted sector**
**100. Which is a solid-state storage device?**
a) HDD
b) SSD
c) Floppy disk
d) CD-ROM
**Answer: b) SSD**
---
## **Additional Important Questions (Bonus)**
**101. In UNIX, the command to list files is:**
a) dir
b) ls
c) list
d) show
**Answer: b) ls**
**102. In Windows, the command to list files is:**
a) ls
b) dir
c) list
d) show
**Answer: b) dir**
**103. Which scheduling algorithm provides starvation-free
execution?**
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round Robin
d) Priority
**Answer: c) Round Robin**
**104. The ready queue holds:**
a) Processes waiting for CPU
b) Processes waiting for I/O
c) Terminated processes
d) All processes
**Answer: a) Processes waiting for CPU**
**105. Zombie process is:**
a) Process using too much CPU
b) Terminated process waiting for parent to read exit status
c) Orphan process
d) Sleeping process
**Answer: b) Terminated process waiting for parent to read
exit status**
**106. Orphan process is:**
a) Process whose parent has terminated
b) Process with no child
c) Process using too much memory
d) Process waiting for I/O
**Answer: a) Process whose parent has terminated**
**107. Fork() system call creates:**
a) Thread
b) Child process
c) File
d) Pipe
**Answer: b) Child process**
**108. Exec() system call:**
a) Creates new process
b) Replaces process memory with new program
c) Terminates process
d) Creates thread
**Answer: b) Replaces process memory with new program**
**109. Wait() system call is used:**
a) To wait for child process to terminate
b) To wait for I/O
c) To wait for user input
d) To wait for timer
**Answer: a) To wait for child process to terminate**
**110. Spooling stands for:**
a) Simultaneous Peripheral Operations Online
b) Sequential Peripheral Operations Online
c) Simultaneous Process Operations Online
d) Sequential Process Operations Online
**Answer: a) Simultaneous Peripheral Operations Online**
COMPUTER SYSTEM MAINTENANCE AND REPAIR
## **Part 1: Hardware Fundamentals & Preventive
Maintenance (1-25)**
**1. What is the primary goal of preventive maintenance?**
a) Fix problems after they occur
b) Prevent problems before they occur
c) Replace all components regularly
d) Upgrade system constantly
**Answer: b) Prevent problems before they occur**
**2. Which tool is essential for preventing ESD
(Electrostatic Discharge) damage?**
a) Multimeter
b) Anti-static wrist strap
c) Screwdriver set
d) Power supply tester
**Answer: b) Anti-static wrist strap**
**3. ESD can damage components at voltages as low as:**
a) 1000 volts
b) 500 volts
c) 100 volts
d) 30 volts
**Answer: d) 30 volts** (Human can't feel below 3000V, but
chips can be damaged at 30V)
**4. The correct sequence for PC assembly is:**
a) Install CPU, RAM, motherboard, PSU
b) Install PSU, motherboard, CPU, RAM
c) Install motherboard, CPU, RAM, PSU
d) Install RAM, CPU, motherboard, PSU
**Answer: c) Install motherboard, CPU, RAM, PSU**
**5. Which component requires thermal paste during
installation?**
a) RAM
b) Hard drive
c) CPU
d) Power supply
**Answer: c) CPU**
**6. POST stands for:**
a) Power On Self Test
b) Pre-operational System Test
c) Primary Operating System Test
d) Peripheral Operational Status Test
**Answer: a) Power On Self Test**
**7. A single beep during POST usually indicates:**
a) Memory error
b) Normal boot
c) Power supply failure
d) Video card failure
**Answer: b) Normal boot** (On most systems)
**8. Continuous beeping during POST typically indicates:**
a) Normal operation
b) RAM failure
c) Hard drive failure
d) Keyboard error
**Answer: b) RAM failure**
**9. The CMOS battery maintains:**
a) System time and BIOS settings
b) RAM contents
c) CPU cache
d) Hard drive data
**Answer: a) System time and BIOS settings**
**10. To reset BIOS settings to default, you can:**
a) Remove CMOS battery for 5 minutes
b) Format the hard drive
c) Reinstall Windows
d) Replace the CPU
**Answer: a) Remove CMOS battery for 5 minutes**
**11. Dust accumulation in a computer primarily causes:**
a) Faster performance
b) Overheating
c) Increased RAM
d) Better connectivity
**Answer: b) Overheating**
**12. Which cleaning tool is NOT recommended for computer
components?**
a) Compressed air
b) Soft brush
c) Vacuum cleaner
d) Isopropyl alcohol
**Answer: c) Vacuum cleaner** (Can create static
electricity)
**13. The recommended humidity level for computer rooms
is:**
a) 10-20%
b) 30-50%
c) 60-80%
d) 80-100%
**Answer: b) 30-50%**
**14. UPS stands for:**
a) Universal Power Supply
b) Uninterruptible Power Supply
c) Universal Power System
d) Uninterruptible Power System
**Answer: b) Uninterruptible Power Supply**
**15. Which type of UPS provides the best protection?**
a) Standby UPS
b) Line-interactive UPS
c) Online/double-conversion UPS
d) All are equal
**Answer: c) Online/double-conversion UPS**
**16. Surge protectors protect against:**
a) Long-term power loss
b) Brief voltage spikes
c) ESD
d) Overheating
**Answer: b) Brief voltage spikes**
**17. A multimeter measures:**
a) Voltage, current, resistance
b) Only voltage
c) Only current
d) Only resistance
**Answer: a) Voltage, current, resistance**
**18. When testing a power supply, the 20+4 pin connector
provides:**
a) +3.3V, +5V, +12V
b) Only +12V
c) Only +5V
d) Only +3.3V
**Answer: a) +3.3V, +5V, +12V**
**19. The 4-pin ATX12V connector powers:**
a) Hard drives
b) CPU
c) Graphics card
d) Motherboard
**Answer: b) CPU**
**20. PCIe power connectors typically provide:**
a) +3.3V
b) +5V
c) +12V
d) -12V
**Answer: c) +12V**
**21. Molex connectors provide:**
a) +3.3V and +5V
b) +5V and +12V
c) +12V only
d) -5V and -12V
**Answer: b) +5V and +12V**
**22. SATA power connectors have how many pins?**
a) 4
b) 15
c) 20
d) 24
**Answer: b) 15**
**23. Which power supply rating indicates efficiency?**
a) 80 Plus
b) ATX
c) Wattage
d) Amperage
**Answer: a) 80 Plus**
**24. The minimum recommended wattage for a gaming PC PSU is
typically:**
a) 300W
b) 500W
c) 750W
d) 1000W
**Answer: b) 500W**
**25. When choosing a PSU, the most important factor after
wattage is:**
a) Brand
b) Color
c) Amperage on +12V rail(s)
d) Cable length
**Answer: c) Amperage on +12V rail(s)**
---
## **Part 2: Motherboard, CPU & RAM (26-50)**
**26. The motherboard form factor determines:**
a) CPU type only
b) Case compatibility and size
c) RAM speed only
d) Hard drive capacity
**Answer: b) Case compatibility and size**
**27. Which is the most common motherboard form factor for
desktops?**
a) ATX
b) Micro-ATX
c) Mini-ITX
d) E-ATX
**Answer: a) ATX**
**28. The chipset is responsible for:**
a) Communication between CPU and other components
b) Only graphics processing
c) Only memory management
d) Only power management
**Answer: a) Communication between CPU and other
components**
**29. Northbridge traditionally handled:**
a) High-speed components (CPU, RAM, GPU)
b) Slow-speed components (USB, audio)
c) Power management
d) Network connectivity
**Answer: a) High-speed components (CPU, RAM, GPU)**
**30. Southbridge traditionally handled:**
a) High-speed components
b) Slow-speed components (USB, SATA, audio)
c) Only CPU communication
d) Only RAM communication
**Answer: b) Slow-speed components (USB, SATA, audio)**
**31. Modern CPUs integrate:**
a) Only Northbridge
b) Only Southbridge
c) Both Northbridge and Southbridge
d) Neither
**Answer: a) Only Northbridge** (Modern CPUs have integrated
memory controller and PCIe controller)
**32. LGA stands for:**
a) Land Grid Array
b) Linear Grid Array
c) Land Graphics Array
d) Linear Graphics Array
**Answer: a) Land Grid Array**
**33. PGA stands for:**
a) Pin Grid Array
b) Processor Grid Array
c) Pin Graphics Array
d) Processor Graphics Array
**Answer: a) Pin Grid Array**
**34. Which requires careful pin alignment?**
a) LGA (pins on motherboard)
b) PGA (pins on CPU)
c) Both
d) Neither
**Answer: b) PGA (pins on CPU)**
**35. The CPU socket ZIF refers to:**
a) Zero Insertion Force
b) Zero Impact Force
c) Zero Interface Force
d) Zero Integrated Force
**Answer: a) Zero Insertion Force**
**36. Overclocking increases:**
a) CPU lifespan
b) CPU stability
c) CPU speed beyond specifications
d) CPU power efficiency
**Answer: c) CPU speed beyond specifications**
**37. Which cooling method is most effective for extreme
overclocking?**
a) Air cooling
b) Liquid cooling
c) Passive cooling
d) Stock cooler
**Answer: b) Liquid cooling**
**38. Thermal throttling occurs when:**
a) CPU runs too cool
b) CPU reduces speed to prevent overheating
c) CPU increases speed
d) RAM overheats
**Answer: b) CPU reduces speed to prevent overheating**
**39. DDR4 RAM operates at:**
a) 1.2V
b) 1.5V
c) 1.8V
d) 2.5V
**Answer: a) 1.2V**
**40. DDR3 RAM operates at:**
a) 1.2V
b) 1.5V
c) 1.8V
d) 2.5V
**Answer: b) 1.5V**
**41. The notch in RAM modules ensures:**
a) Better cooling
b) Correct orientation
c) Higher speed
d) Lower voltage
**Answer: b) Correct orientation**
**42. Dual-channel memory requires:**
a) One RAM stick
b) Two identical RAM sticks in correct slots
c) Three RAM sticks
d) Any RAM configuration
**Answer: b) Two identical RAM sticks in correct slots**
**43. ECC RAM is typically used in:**
a) Gaming PCs
b) Servers and workstations
c) Home theaters
d) Office desktops
**Answer: b) Servers and workstations**
**44. RAM speed is measured in:**
a) GHz
b) MHz
c) MB/s
d) GB/s
**Answer: b) MHz**
**45. CAS Latency refers to:**
a) RAM speed
b) RAM delay time
c) RAM capacity
d) RAM voltage
**Answer: b) RAM delay time**
**46. To clear CMOS, you can:**
a) Remove BIOS chip
b) Use jumper or remove battery
c) Format hard drive
d) Reinstall OS
**Answer: b) Use jumper or remove battery**
**47. BIOS updates are performed to:**
a) Increase hard drive capacity
b) Add new CPU support and fix bugs
c) Make computer faster
d) Add more RAM slots
**Answer: b) Add new CPU support and fix bugs**
**48. UEFI advantages over BIOS include:**
a) Faster boot, secure boot, mouse support
b) Slower boot, less secure
c) No difference
d) Only mouse support
**Answer: a) Faster boot, secure boot, mouse support**
**49. Secure Boot prevents:**
a) Windows updates
b) Unauthorized OS/software at boot
c) Hardware installation
d) User login
**Answer: b) Unauthorized OS/software at boot**
**50. The BIOS chip is usually:**
a) Removable
b) Soldered to motherboard
c) In the CPU
d) On the hard drive
**Answer: b) Soldered to motherboard** (Most modern
motherboards)
---
## **Part 3: Storage Devices & Peripherals (51-75)**
**51. HDD stands for:**
a) High-Density Drive
b) Hard Disk Drive
c) High-Definition Drive
d) Hard Digital Drive
**Answer: b) Hard Disk Drive**
**52. SSD stands for:**
a) Solid-State Drive
b) Super-Speed Drive
c) System Storage Drive
d) Solid Storage Drive
**Answer: a) Solid-State Drive**
**53. The "click of death" refers to:**
a) Normal HDD operation
b) Failing HDD read/write heads
c) SSD failure
d) CD/DVD drive sound
**Answer: b) Failing HDD read/write heads**
**54. SMART monitoring helps predict:**
a) RAM failure
b) CPU failure
c) Hard drive failure
d) Power supply failure
**Answer: c) Hard drive failure**
**55. Bad sectors are:**
a) Fast sectors
b) Unusable sectors on a disk
c) Extra capacity sectors
d) Temporary files
**Answer: b) Unusable sectors on a disk**
**56. Which has faster access time?**
a) HDD
b) SSD
c) Both equal
d) Optical drive
**Answer: b) SSD**
**57. NVMe drives connect via:**
a) SATA
b) PCIe
c) USB
d) IDE
**Answer: b) PCIe**
**58. M.2 is a:**
a) Form factor
b) Interface
c) Both form factor and interface
d) Neither
**Answer: c) Both form factor and interface**
**59. RAID 0 provides:**
a) Striping (performance)
b) Mirroring (redundancy)
c) Parity (error correction)
d) Backup
**Answer: a) Striping (performance)**
**60. RAID 1 provides:**
a) Striping
b) Mirroring
c) Parity
d) Speed only
**Answer: b) Mirroring**
**61. RAID 5 requires minimum of:**
a) 1 drive
b) 2 drives
c) 3 drives
d) 4 drives
**Answer: c) 3 drives**
**62. Optical drives use which laser for Blu-ray?**
a) Red
b) Blue-violet
c) Infrared
d) Green
**Answer: b) Blue-violet**
**63. Keyboard ghosting occurs when:**
a) Multiple keys pressed simultaneously don't register
b) Keys type wrong characters
c) Keyboard is dirty
d) Keyboard LED fails
**Answer: a) Multiple keys pressed simultaneously don't
register**
**64. N-key rollover means:**
a) All keys can be pressed simultaneously
b) Only 6 keys can be pressed
c) Keys roll over screen
d) Keyboard has rolling lights
**Answer: a) All keys can be pressed simultaneously**
**65. DPI in mouse refers to:**
a) Dots per inch (sensitivity)
b) Display pixels
c) Data processing interval
d) Device power input
**Answer: a) Dots per inch (sensitivity)**
**66. Which monitor type has best color accuracy?**
a) TN
b) IPS
c) VA
d) CRT
**Answer: b) IPS**
**67. Response time in monitors measures:**
a) Pixel color change speed
b) Input lag
c) Power consumption
d) Brightness
**Answer: a) Pixel color change speed**
**68. Dead pixel appears as:**
a) Stuck on one color
b) Always off (black)
c) Both a and b
d) Brighter than others
**Answer: c) Both a and b**
**69. Which cable supports highest resolution?**
a) VGA
b) DVI
c) HDMI 2.1
d) Composite
**Answer: c) HDMI 2.1**
**70. DisplayPort advantages include:**
a) Higher bandwidth than HDMI
b) Better audio
c) Cheaper cables
d) More common
**Answer: a) Higher bandwidth than HDMI**
**71. Printer maintenance includes replacing:**
a) Toner (laser) or ink (inkjet)
b) Paper only
c) Power cord
d) Network cable
**Answer: a) Toner (laser) or ink (inkjet)**
**72. Laser printer components include:**
a) Drum, toner, fuser
b) Ink cartridges, print head
c) Ribbon
d) Hammer
**Answer: a) Drum, toner, fuser**
**73. The fuser unit temperature in laser printers is
approximately:**
a) 100°C
b) 180°C
c) 300°C
d) 500°C
**Answer: b) 180°C**
**74. Inkjet printer clogged nozzles can be cleaned by:**
a) Printer's cleaning utility
b) Using compressed air
c) Soaking in water
d) Hitting printer
**Answer: a) Printer's cleaning utility**
**75. 3D printers commonly use which technology?**
a) FDM (Fused Deposition Modeling)
b) Laser sintering
c) Inkjet
d) Dot matrix
**Answer: a) FDM (Fused Deposition Modeling)**
---
## **Part 4: Troubleshooting & Diagnostics (76-100)**
**76. The FIRST step in troubleshooting is:**
a) Replace components
b) Identify the problem
c) Reinstall OS
d) Update drivers
**Answer: b) Identify the problem**
**77. A PC that won't turn on (no lights, no fans) likely
has:**
a) Software issue
b) Power supply or power connection issue
c) RAM failure
d) Hard drive failure
**Answer: b) Power supply or power connection issue**
**78. The "paperclip test" checks:**
a) RAM
b) Power supply
c) CPU
d) Hard drive
**Answer: b) Power supply**
**79. Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is caused by:**
a) Hardware or driver failures
b) Only software errors
c) Only user errors
d) Network issues
**Answer: a) Hardware or driver failures**
**80. MEMTEST86 is used to test:**
a) CPU
b) RAM
c) Hard drive
d) Power supply
**Answer: b) RAM**
**81. CHKDSK checks:**
a) RAM errors
b) File system and disk errors
c) CPU errors
d) Network errors
**Answer: b) File system and disk errors**
**82. SFC (System File Checker) command is:**
a) sfc /scannow
b) sfc /repair
c) sfc /fix
d) sfc /check
**Answer: a) sfc /scannow**
**83. Driver issues often cause:**
a) Device not working or crashing
b) Faster performance
c) More storage
d) Better graphics
**Answer: a) Device not working or crashing**
**84. Safe Mode loads:**
a) All drivers and programs
b) Only essential drivers
c) No drivers
d) Only network drivers
**Answer: b) Only essential drivers**
**85. To enter Windows Recovery Environment, you can:**
a) Press F8 during boot (older Windows)
b) Use installation media
c) From Settings > Recovery
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**86. Event Viewer helps:**
a) View system logs and errors
b) Play videos
c) Edit photos
d) Browse internet
**Answer: a) View system logs and errors**
**87. High CPU usage could be caused by:**
a) Malware
b) Background processes
c) Insufficient RAM
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**88. Disk Cleanup removes:**
a) Temporary files
b) System files
c) User documents
d) Programs
**Answer: a) Temporary files**
**89. Defragmentation is useful for:**
a) SSD drives
b) HDD drives
c) Both equally
d) Neither
**Answer: b) HDD drives** (SSDs should NOT be defragmented)
**90. TRIM command is for:**
a) HDD maintenance
b) SSD garbage collection
c) RAM cleaning
d) CPU optimization
**Answer: b) SSD garbage collection**
**91. The PING command tests:**
a) Network connectivity
b) Hard drive speed
c) CPU temperature
d) RAM speed
**Answer: a) Network connectivity**
**92. IPCONFIG shows:**
a) Network configuration
b) Internet speed
c) Website content
d) Email messages
**Answer: a) Network configuration**
**93. Loopback address is:**
a) 127.0.0.1
b) 192.168.0.1
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 0.0.0.0
**Answer: a) 127.0.0.1**
**94. To release and renew IP address, use:**
a) ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew
b) ipconfig /flush
c) ipconfig /reset
d) ipconfig /new
**Answer: a) ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew**
**95. Malware symptoms include:**
a) Slow performance, pop-ups, high network usage
b) Faster performance
c) More storage space
d) Better graphics
**Answer: a) Slow performance, pop-ups, high network usage**
**96. A restore point contains:**
a) System settings and registry
b) User files
c) Programs
d) Everything on computer
**Answer: a) System settings and registry**
**97. Backup types include:**
a) Full, incremental, differential
b) Fast, slow, medium
c) Big, small, medium
d) Primary, secondary, tertiary
**Answer: a) Full, incremental, differential**
**98. 3-2-1 backup rule means:**
a) 3 backups, 2 different media, 1 offsite
b) 3 days between backups
c) 2 backups only
d) 1 backup location
**Answer: a) 3 backups, 2 different media, 1 offsite**
**99. Data recovery software can sometimes recover:**
a) Deleted files (if not overwritten)
b) Formatted drives
c) Failed drives (if not physically damaged)
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**100. Professional data recovery services are needed
when:**
a) Drive has physical damage
b) Drive is not detected in BIOS
c) There are clicking sounds
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
---
## **Bonus Questions (101-110)**
**101. Capacitor plague refers to:**
a) Swollen/burst capacitors on motherboard
b) Too many capacitors
c) Missing capacitors
d) Small capacitors
**Answer: a) Swollen/burst capacitors on motherboard**
**102. VRM on motherboard regulates power to:**
a) CPU
b) RAM
c) Hard drives
d) All components
**Answer: a) CPU**
**103. Thermal paste should be applied:**
a) In a thick layer
b) Rice grain amount in center
c) Spread evenly over entire CPU
d) Only on heatsink
**Answer: b) Rice grain amount in center**
**104. Bent CPU pins can be carefully straightened with:**
a) Mechanical pencil (no lead) or tweezers
b) Screwdriver
c) Hammer
d) Pliers
**Answer: a) Mechanical pencil (no lead) or tweezers**
**105. The best way to clean a keyboard is:**
a) Submerge in water
b) Use compressed air and isopropyl alcohol
c) Put in dishwasher
d) Use soap and water
**Answer: b) Use compressed air and isopropyl alcohol**
**106. LCD monitor inverter failure causes:**
a) No display but backlight works
b) No backlight but image visible with flashlight
c) Distorted image
d) Dead pixels
**Answer: b) No backlight but image visible with
flashlight**
**107. To prevent lithium battery swelling:**
a) Keep at 100% charge always
b) Avoid extreme temperatures and overcharging
c) Discharge completely before charging
d) Charge while using
**Answer: b) Avoid extreme temperatures and overcharging**
**108. Ground loop causes:**
a) Humming sound in audio
b) Faster performance
c) Better display
d) More storage
**Answer: a) Humming sound in audio**
**109. Coil whine is:**
a) High-pitched noise from power components
b) Fan noise
c) Hard drive noise
d) Normal operation sound
**Answer: a) High-pitched noise from power components**
**110. The "tap test" helps identify:**
a) Loose connections
b) Software issues
c) Network problems
d) Malware
**Answer: a) Loose connections** (Gently tapping components
while system runs to find intermittent connections)
COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
## **Part 1: Programming Fundamentals (1-25)**
**1. What is a program?**
a) A set of hardware instructions
b) A set of step-by-step instructions for a computer
c) A computer component
d) An output device
**Answer: b) A set of step-by-step instructions for a
computer**
**2. Which language is directly understood by the CPU?**
a) Assembly language
b) Machine language
c) High-level language
d) C language
**Answer: b) Machine language**
**3. A compiler:**
a) Translates and executes line by line
b) Translates entire program at once
c) Is an interpreter
d) Is a debugger
**Answer: b) Translates entire program at once**
**4. An interpreter:**
a) Translates entire program at once
b) Translates and executes line by line
c) Only compiles programs
d) Only debugs programs
**Answer: b) Translates and executes line by line**
**5. What is a syntax error?**
a) Logical mistake in program
b) Violation of programming language rules
c) Runtime error
d) Hardware error
**Answer: b) Violation of programming language rules**
**6. What is a logical error?**
a) Program runs but gives wrong results
b) Program won't compile
c) Program crashes
d) Syntax violation
**Answer: a) Program runs but gives wrong results**
**7. Debugging is:**
a) Writing programs
b) Finding and fixing errors
c) Compiling programs
d) Executing programs
**Answer: b) Finding and fixing errors**
**8. Which is NOT a programming paradigm?**
a) Procedural
b) Object-oriented
c) Functional
d) Compilation
**Answer: d) Compilation**
**9. An algorithm is:**
a) A programming language
b) A step-by-step solution to a problem
c) A type of computer
d) A hardware component
**Answer: b) A step-by-step solution to a problem**
**10. Pseudocode is:**
a) Machine language
b) Actual code that runs
c) Informal high-level description of algorithm
d) Assembly language
**Answer: c) Informal high-level description of algorithm**
**11. Flowchart symbols: Rectangle represents:**
a) Decision
b) Process/operation
c) Start/end
d) Input/output
**Answer: b) Process/operation**
**12. Flowchart symbols: Diamond represents:**
a) Decision
b) Process
c) Start/end
d) Input/output
**Answer: a) Decision**
**13. A variable is:**
a) A fixed value
b) A named storage location
c) A function
d) A constant
**Answer: b) A named storage location**
**14. Which is a valid variable name in most languages?**
a) 1stVariable
b) _variable
c) variable-name
d) var name
**Answer: b) _variable**
**15. A constant:**
a) Can change during execution
b) Cannot change during execution
c) Is always zero
d) Is always one
**Answer: b) Cannot change during execution**
**16. Data types define:**
a) Type of operations that can be performed
b) Only variable names
c) Only program structure
d) Only output format
**Answer: a) Type of operations that can be performed**
**17. Which is NOT a primitive data type?**
a) Integer
b) Float
c) Character
d) Array
**Answer: d) Array** (Array is a composite data type)
**18. Integer data type stores:**
a) Whole numbers
b) Decimal numbers
c) Text
d) True/false values
**Answer: a) Whole numbers**
**19. Boolean data type stores:**
a) True/False values
b) Decimal numbers
c) Text
d) Whole numbers
**Answer: a) True/False values**
**20. String data type stores:**
a) Whole numbers
b) Decimal numbers
c) Text/characters
d) True/false values
**Answer: c) Text/characters**
**21. An operator is:**
a) A variable
b) A symbol that performs operation on operands
c) A function
d) A data type
**Answer: b) A symbol that performs operation on operands**
**22. Arithmetic operators include:**
a) +, -, *, /
b) &&, ||, !
c) ==, !=, >
d) =, +=, -=
**Answer: a) +, -, *, /**
**23. Relational operators include:**
a) +, -, *, /
b) &&, ||, !
c) ==, !=, >
d) =, +=, -=
**Answer: c) ==, !=, >**
**24. Logical operators include:**
a) +, -, *, /
b) &&, ||, !
c) ==, !=, >
d) =, +=, -=
**Answer: b) &&, ||, !**
**25. Assignment operators include:**
a) +, -, *, /
b) &&, ||, !
c) ==, !=, >
d) =, +=, -=
**Answer: d) =, +=, -=**
---
## **Part 2: Control Structures & Functions (26-50)**
**26. Control structures determine:**
a) Data types
b) Flow of program execution
c) Variable names
d) Memory allocation
**Answer: b) Flow of program execution**
**27. Which is NOT a control structure?**
a) Sequence
b) Selection
c) Iteration
d) Compilation
**Answer: d) Compilation**
**28. The sequence structure:**
a) Executes statements in order
b) Makes decisions
c) Repeats statements
d) Jumps to functions
**Answer: a) Executes statements in order**
**29. The selection structure:**
a) Executes statements in order
b) Makes decisions
c) Repeats statements
d) Declares variables
**Answer: b) Makes decisions**
**30. The iteration structure:**
a) Executes statements in order
b) Makes decisions
c) Repeats statements
d) Returns values
**Answer: c) Repeats statements**
**31. If statement is used for:**
a) Looping
b) Conditional execution
c) Function definition
d) Variable declaration
**Answer: b) Conditional execution**
**32. If-else statement provides:**
a) Only one alternative
b) Two alternatives
c) Multiple alternatives
d) No alternatives
**Answer: b) Two alternatives**
**33. Switch-case is used for:**
a) Multiple alternative decisions
b) Only two alternatives
c) Looping
d) Function calls
**Answer: a) Multiple alternative decisions**
**34. For loop is used when:**
a) Number of iterations is unknown
b) Number of iterations is known
c) Only one iteration is needed
d) No iterations are needed
**Answer: b) Number of iterations is known**
**35. While loop checks condition:**
a) At the beginning
b) At the end
c) In the middle
d) Never checks
**Answer: a) At the beginning**
**36. Do-while loop checks condition:**
a) At the beginning
b) At the end
c) In the middle
d) Never checks
**Answer: b) At the end**
**37. Break statement:**
a) Continues to next iteration
b) Exits the loop/switch
c) Starts a loop
d) Declares variables
**Answer: b) Exits the loop/switch**
**38. Continue statement:**
a) Exits the loop
b) Skips to next iteration
c) Starts a loop
d) Ends program
**Answer: b) Skips to next iteration**
**39. A function is:**
a) A data type
b) A reusable block of code
c) A variable
d) An operator
**Answer: b) A reusable block of code**
**40. Function parameters are:**
a) Values returned by function
b) Values passed to function
c) Local variables only
d) Global variables only
**Answer: b) Values passed to function**
**41. Return value of function is:**
a) Value passed to function
b) Value returned to caller
c) Parameter value
d) Local variable
**Answer: b) Value returned to caller**
**42. Scope of a variable defines:**
a) Its data type
b) Where it can be accessed
c) Its value
d) Its name
**Answer: b) Where it can be accessed**
**43. Local variables are declared:**
a) Inside a function
b) Outside all functions
c) In header files
d) In comments
**Answer: a) Inside a function**
**44. Global variables are declared:**
a) Inside a function
b) Outside all functions
c) Only in main function
d) In comments
**Answer: b) Outside all functions**
**45. Pass by value means:**
a) Actual parameter is modified
b) Copy of value is passed
c) Address is passed
d) Reference is passed
**Answer: b) Copy of value is passed**
**46. Pass by reference means:**
a) Copy of value is passed
b) Address/reference is passed
c) Value cannot be modified
d) New variable is created
**Answer: b) Address/reference is passed**
**47. Recursion is when:**
a) Function calls another function
b) Function calls itself
c) Function has no parameters
d) Function has no return value
**Answer: b) Function calls itself**
**48. Base case in recursion:**
a) Stops the recursion
b) Starts the recursion
c) Is always true
d) Is never reached
**Answer: a) Stops the recursion**
**49. Which is an advantage of functions?**
a) Code duplication
b) Code reusability
c) Larger program size
d) More complex code
**Answer: b) Code reusability**
**50. Modular programming means:**
a) Writing one large function
b) Dividing program into modules/functions
c) Using only global variables
d) No use of functions
**Answer: b) Dividing program into modules/functions**
---
## **Part 3: Data Structures & Algorithms (51-75)**
**51. A data structure is:**
a) A way to organize and store data
b) A programming language
c) A type of computer
d) An output format
**Answer: a) A way to organize and store data**
**52. Which is a linear data structure?**
a) Tree
b) Graph
c) Array
d) Hash table
**Answer: c) Array**
**53. Which is a non-linear data structure?**
a) Array
b) Linked list
c) Stack
d) Tree
**Answer: d) Tree**
**54. Array elements are accessed using:**
a) Values
b) Index/position
c) Pointers only
d) References only
**Answer: b) Index/position**
**55. Array index typically starts at:**
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Any number
**Answer: a) 0** (In most languages)
**56. Linked list consists of:**
a) Contiguous memory locations
b) Nodes with data and pointer to next node
c) Only data elements
d) Only pointers
**Answer: b) Nodes with data and pointer to next node**
**57. Stack follows:**
a) FIFO (First In First Out)
b) LIFO (Last In First Out)
c) Random access
d) No order
**Answer: b) LIFO (Last In First Out)**
**58. Queue follows:**
a) FIFO (First In First Out)
b) LIFO (Last In First Out)
c) Random access
d) No order
**Answer: a) FIFO (First In First Out)**
**59. Push operation adds element to:**
a) Front of queue
b) Rear of queue
c) Top of stack
d) Bottom of stack
**Answer: c) Top of stack**
**60. Pop operation removes element from:**
a) Front of queue
b) Rear of queue
c) Top of stack
d) Bottom of stack
**Answer: c) Top of stack**
**61. Enqueue adds element to:**
a) Front of queue
b) Rear of queue
c) Top of stack
d) Bottom of stack
**Answer: b) Rear of queue**
**62. Dequeue removes element from:**
a) Front of queue
b) Rear of queue
c) Top of stack
d) Bottom of stack
**Answer: a) Front of queue**
**63. Tree has hierarchical structure with:**
a) Only leaves
b) Root and nodes
c) Only root
d) Only branches
**Answer: b) Root and nodes**
**64. Binary tree has at most:**
a) 1 child per node
b) 2 children per node
c) 3 children per node
d) Any number of children
**Answer: b) 2 children per node**
**65. Graph consists of:**
a) Only nodes
b) Nodes and edges
c) Only edges
d) Only root
**Answer: b) Nodes and edges**
**66. Algorithm complexity measures:**
a) Time and space requirements
b) Only program size
c) Only input size
d) Only output size
**Answer: a) Time and space requirements**
**67. Big O notation describes:**
a) Best case complexity
b) Worst case complexity
c) Average case complexity
d) Exact complexity
**Answer: b) Worst case complexity**
**68. O(1) means:**
a) Constant time
b) Linear time
c) Quadratic time
d) Logarithmic time
**Answer: a) Constant time**
**69. O(n) means:**
a) Constant time
b) Linear time
c) Quadratic time
d) Logarithmic time
**Answer: b) Linear time**
**70. O(n²) means:**
a) Constant time
b) Linear time
c) Quadratic time
d) Logarithmic time
**Answer: c) Quadratic time**
**71. Searching algorithm that requires sorted array:**
a) Linear search
b) Binary search
c) Both
d) Neither
**Answer: b) Binary search**
**72. Binary search has complexity:**
a) O(1)
b) O(n)
c) O(log n)
d) O(n²)
**Answer: c) O(log n)**
**73. Linear search has complexity:**
a) O(1)
b) O(n)
c) O(log n)
d) O(n²)
**Answer: b) O(n)**
**74. Bubble sort complexity is:**
a) O(1)
b) O(n)
c) O(n²)
d) O(log n)
**Answer: c) O(n²)**
**75. Which sort is generally fastest for large datasets?**
a) Bubble sort
b) Selection sort
c) Quick sort
d) Insertion sort
**Answer: c) Quick sort**
---
## **Part 4: Object-Oriented Programming & Advanced
Concepts (76-100)**
**76. OOP stands for:**
a) Object-Oriented Programming
b) Object-Optimized Programming
c) Operational Object Programming
d) Oriented Object Protocol
**Answer: a) Object-Oriented Programming**
**77. Which is NOT an OOP concept?**
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Compilation
**Answer: d) Compilation**
**78. A class is:**
a) An instance
b) A blueprint for objects
c) A variable
d) A function
**Answer: b) A blueprint for objects**
**79. An object is:**
a) A blueprint
b) An instance of a class
c) A data type
d) A function
**Answer: b) An instance of a class**
**80. Encapsulation means:**
a) Hiding implementation details
b) Inheriting properties
c) Many forms
d) Code reusability
**Answer: a) Hiding implementation details**
**81. Inheritance allows:**
a) New class to acquire properties of existing class
b) Hiding data
c) Multiple forms
d) Function overloading
**Answer: a) New class to acquire properties of existing
class**
**82. Polymorphism means:**
a) Many forms
b) Data hiding
c) Code reuse
d) Class blueprint
**Answer: a) Many forms**
**83. Method overriding is:**
a) Same method name, different parameters
b) Redefining parent class method in child class
c) Creating new method
d) Deleting method
**Answer: b) Redefining parent class method in child class**
**84. Method overloading is:**
a) Same method name, different parameters
b) Redefining parent class method
c) Creating new class
d) Inheriting methods
**Answer: a) Same method name, different parameters**
**85. Constructor is:**
a) Special method called when object is created
b) Method that destroys object
c) Regular class method
d) Static method
**Answer: a) Special method called when object is created**
**86. Destructor is:**
a) Special method called when object is destroyed
b) Method that creates object
c) Regular class method
d) Static method
**Answer: a) Special method called when object is
destroyed**
**87. Abstract class:**
a) Can be instantiated
b) Cannot be instantiated
c) Has no methods
d) Has no variables
**Answer: b) Cannot be instantiated**
**88. Interface contains:**
a) Only method declarations
b) Only variable declarations
c) Method implementations
d) Both a and b
**Answer: a) Only method declarations** (In many languages)
**89. Exception is:**
a) Normal program flow
b) An error or unexpected event
c) A data type
d) A function
**Answer: b) An error or unexpected event**
**90. Try-catch block is used for:**
a) Regular execution
b) Exception handling
c) Loop control
d) Function definition
**Answer: b) Exception handling**
**91. File handling allows:**
a) Reading from and writing to files
b) Only reading files
c) Only writing files
d) Deleting files only
**Answer: a) Reading from and writing to files**
**92. Which mode opens file for reading?**
a) "r"
b) "w"
c) "a"
d) "x"
**Answer: a) "r"**
**93. Which mode opens file for writing (creates new or
truncates)?**
a) "r"
b) "w"
c) "a"
d) "x"
**Answer: b) "w"**
**94. Pointer holds:**
a) Value
b) Memory address
c) Data type
d) Function name
**Answer: b) Memory address**
**95. Dynamic memory allocation:**
a) Allocates memory at compile time
b) Allocates memory at runtime
c) Is automatic
d) Cannot be freed
**Answer: b) Allocates memory at runtime**
**96. Malloc() function is used for:**
a) Memory allocation in C
b) Memory deallocation
c) File opening
d) Input reading
**Answer: a) Memory allocation in C**
**97. Free() function is used for:**
a) Memory allocation
b) Memory deallocation
c) File closing
d) Output writing
**Answer: b) Memory deallocation**
**98. Garbage collection:**
a) Manually frees memory
b) Automatically reclaims unused memory
c) Allocates memory
d) Reads files
**Answer: b) Automatically reclaims unused memory**
**99. Version control systems help:**
a) Track changes in code
b) Compile programs
c) Execute programs
d) Design algorithms
**Answer: a) Track changes in code**
**100. Git is a:**
a) Programming language
b) Version control system
c) Data structure
d) Algorithm
**Answer: b) Version control system**
---
## **Bonus Questions (101-110)**
**101. What is the output: `print(5 // 2)` in Python?**
a) 2.5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 2.0
**Answer: b) 2** (Integer division)
**102. What does `++i` do in C++?**
a) Post-increment
b) Pre-increment
c) Addition
d) Multiplication
**Answer: b) Pre-increment**
**103. `==` operator checks:**
a) Assignment
b) Equality
c) Increment
d) Decrement
**Answer: b) Equality**
**104. `=` operator is used for:**
a) Assignment
b) Equality check
c) Comparison
d) Logical AND
**Answer: a) Assignment**
**105. Ternary operator syntax in C:**
a) condition ? value1 : value2
b) condition : value1 ? value2
c) condition ? value1 ? value2
d) condition : value1 : value2
**Answer: a) condition ? value1 : value2**
**106. In Python, lists are:**
a) Immutable
b) Mutable
c) Fixed size
d) Only store numbers
**Answer: b) Mutable**
**107. In Python, tuples are:**
a) Immutable
b) Mutable
c) Resizable
d) Only store strings
**Answer: a) Immutable**
**108. Dictionary in Python stores:**
a) Key-value pairs
b) Only values
c) Only keys
d) Indexed values
**Answer: a) Key-value pairs**
**109. JavaScript is primarily used for:**
a) System programming
b) Web development
c) Mobile apps only
d) Desktop apps only
**Answer: b) Web development**
**110. SQL is used for:**
a) Database operations
b) Web design
c) Graphic design
d) System administration
**Answer: a) Database operations**
---
## **Language-Specific Examples (111-120)**
**111. In Java, main method signature is:**
a) public static void main(String[] args)
b) public void main(String args)
c) static void main(String[] args)
d) public main(String[] args)
**Answer: a) public static void main(String[] args)**
**112. In C++, `cout` is used for:**
a) Input
b) Output
c) Both input and output
d) File handling
**Answer: b) Output**
**113. In Python, `def` keyword defines:**
a) Variable
b) Function
c) Class
d) Module
**Answer: b) Function**
**114. In JavaScript, `var` declares:**
a) Constant
b) Variable
c) Function
d) Class
**Answer: b) Variable**
**115. Which is dynamically typed language?**
a) Java
b) C++
c) Python
d) C
**Answer: c) Python**
**116. Which is statically typed language?**
a) Python
b) JavaScript
c) Java
d) PHP
**Answer: c) Java**
**117. HTML is:**
a) Programming language
b) Markup language
c) Scripting language
d) Styling language
**Answer: b) Markup language**
**118. CSS is used for:**
a) Programming logic
b) Styling web pages
c) Database operations
d) Server-side scripting
**Answer: b) Styling web pages**
**119. API stands for:**
a) Application Programming Interface
b) Advanced Programming Interface
c) Application Program Integration
d) Advanced Program Integration
**Answer: a) Application Programming Interface**
**120. REST stands for:**
a) Representational State Transfer
b) Remote State Transfer
c) Representational System Transfer
d) Remote System Transfer
**Answer: a) Representational State Transfer**
PROJECT MANAGEMENT
**1. A project is:**
a) An ongoing operation
b) A temporary endeavor with a unique product/service
c) A permanent organizational function
d) A routine task
**Answer: b) A temporary endeavor with a unique
product/service**
**2. Which is NOT a characteristic of a project?**
a) Temporary
b) Unique
c) Repetitive
d) Has a definite beginning and end
**Answer: c) Repetitive**
**3. Project management is:**
a) Application of knowledge, skills, tools to project
activities
b) Only scheduling tasks
c) Only managing budgets
d) Only technical work
**Answer: a) Application of knowledge, skills, tools to
project activities**
**4. The triple constraint consists of:**
a) Time, Cost, Scope
b) Time, Quality, Risk
c) Cost, Quality, Resources
d) Scope, Risk, Stakeholders
**Answer: a) Time, Cost, Scope**
**5. If scope increases but time and cost remain fixed, what
happens?**
a) Quality increases
b) Quality decreases
c) Risk decreases
d) Stakeholders are happier
**Answer: b) Quality decreases**
**6. A program is:**
a) A single project
b) A group of related projects managed together
c) A portfolio
d) An operation
**Answer: b) A group of related projects managed together**
**7. A portfolio is:**
a) A single project
b) A group of related projects
c) A collection of projects, programs, and other work
d) Only operational work
**Answer: c) A collection of projects, programs, and other
work**
**8. Operations management differs from project management
because it:**
a) Is temporary
b) Is unique
c) Is ongoing and repetitive
d) Has a definite end
**Answer: c) Is ongoing and repetitive**
**9. Which is NOT a project management process group?**
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Budgeting
**Answer: d) Budgeting** (Budgeting is part of planning)
**10. Which knowledge area includes defining project scope?**
a) Scope Management
b) Time Management
c) Cost Management
d) Quality Management
**Answer: a) Scope Management**
**11. The person responsible for achieving project
objectives is:**
a) Functional Manager
b) Project Manager
c) Sponsor
d) Customer
**Answer: b) Project Manager**
**12. The person who provides resources and support is:**
a) Project Manager
b) Sponsor
c) Team Member
d) Stakeholder
**Answer: b) Sponsor**
**13. A stakeholder is:**
a) Only the customer
b) Anyone affected by the project
c) Only the project team
d) Only the sponsor
**Answer: b) Anyone affected by the project**
**14. Which organizational structure gives most power to
project manager?**
a) Functional
b) Matrix (Weak)
c) Matrix (Strong)
d) Projectized
**Answer: d) Projectized**
**15. In functional organization, project authority rests
with:**
a) Project Manager
b) Functional Manager
c) Sponsor
d) Customer
**Answer: b) Functional Manager**
**16. Matrix organization combines elements of:**
a) Functional and projectized
b) Only functional
c) Only projectized
d) Neither
**Answer: a) Functional and projectized**
**17. The document that formally authorizes a project is:**
a) Project Charter
b) Scope Statement
c) Business Case
d) Project Plan
**Answer: a) Project Charter**
**18. A project charter includes:**
a) Detailed task list
b) High-level requirements and constraints
c) Detailed budget
d) Resource assignments
**Answer: b) High-level requirements and constraints**
**19. The PMBOK Guide is published by:**
a) PMI (Project Management Institute)
b) ISO
c) IEEE
d) ANSI
**Answer: a) PMI (Project Management Institute)**
**20. PMP stands for:**
a) Project Management Professional
b) Program Management Professional
c) Portfolio Management Professional
d) Project Management Process
**Answer: a) Project Management Professional**
**21. Which is NOT a project phase?**
a) Initiation
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Maintenance
**Answer: d) Maintenance** (Maintenance is typically
operations)
**22. Progressive elaboration means:**
a) Planning once at beginning
b) Continuously refining plans
c) Never changing plans
d) Only executing
**Answer: b) Continuously refining plans**
**23. The process of comparing actual performance with
planned performance is:**
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring and Controlling
d) Closing
**Answer: c) Monitoring and Controlling**
**24. Lessons Learned are documented during:**
a) Initiation only
b) Planning only
c) Throughout the project
d) Closing only
**Answer: c) Throughout the project**
**25. Project success is measured by:**
a) Meeting scope, time, cost objectives
b) Customer satisfaction
c) Team satisfaction
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
---
## **Part 2: Project Integration & Scope Management
(26-50)**
**26. The primary document guiding project execution is:**
a) Project Charter
b) Project Management Plan
c) Scope Statement
d) Business Case
**Answer: b) Project Management Plan**
**27. Which process develops the project management plan?**
a) Develop Project Charter
b) Develop Project Management Plan
c) Direct and Manage Project Work
d) Monitor and Control Project Work
**Answer: b) Develop Project Management Plan**
**28. Change requests are processed in:**
a) Perform Integrated Change Control
b) Direct and Manage Project Work
c) Monitor and Control Project Work
d) Close Project or Phase
**Answer: a) Perform Integrated Change Control**
**29. Configuration management is part of:**
a) Quality Management
b) Risk Management
c) Integrated Change Control
d) Scope Management
**Answer: c) Integrated Change Control**
**30. The project scope statement:**
a) Describes project boundaries
b) Is the same as the charter
c) Only lists deliverables
d) Only lists constraints
**Answer: a) Describes project boundaries**
**31. WBS stands for:**
a) Work Breakdown Structure
b) Work Breakdown Schedule
c) Work Budget Structure
d) Work Budget Schedule
**Answer: a) Work Breakdown Structure**
**32. The lowest level of WBS is called:**
a) Work package
b) Activity
c) Task
d) Milestone
**Answer: a) Work package**
**33. A WBS is:**
a) Hierarchical decomposition of work
b) List of resources
c) Schedule
d) Budget
**Answer: a) Hierarchical decomposition of work**
**34. The 100% rule for WBS means:**
a) 100% of project work must be included
b) Only 100 work packages allowed
c) 100% budget accuracy
d) 100% time accuracy
**Answer: a) 100% of project work must be included**
**35. Scope creep refers to:**
a) Planned scope increases
b) Uncontrolled scope changes
c) Scope reduction
d) Scope verification
**Answer: b) Uncontrolled scope changes**
**36. The process of formalizing acceptance of deliverables
is:**
a) Validate Scope
b) Control Scope
c) Define Scope
d) Create WBS
**Answer: a) Validate Scope**
**37. Requirements documentation includes:**
a) Business requirements
b) Stakeholder requirements
c) Solution requirements
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**38. A requirements traceability matrix helps:**
a) Track requirements through project life cycle
b) Create schedule
c) Calculate budget
d) Assign resources
**Answer: a) Track requirements through project life cycle**
**39. Which technique collects requirements?**
a) Interviews
b) Surveys
c) Observation
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**40. MoSCoW method prioritizes requirements as:**
a) Must have, Should have, Could have, Won't have
b) Must have, Should have, Can have, Will have
c) Mandatory, Should, Could, Would
d) Mandatory, Optional, Should, Could
**Answer: a) Must have, Should have, Could have, Won't
have**
**41. The approved version of scope statement, WBS, and WBS
dictionary is:**
a) Scope baseline
b) Schedule baseline
c) Cost baseline
d) Performance baseline
**Answer: a) Scope baseline**
**42. Product scope describes:**
a) Features and functions of product
b) Work needed to deliver product
c) Project management work
d) Administrative work
**Answer: a) Features and functions of product**
**43. Project scope describes:**
a) Features and functions of product
b) Work needed to deliver product
c) Only deliverables
d) Only constraints
**Answer: b) Work needed to deliver product**
**44. A deliverable is:**
a) Any unique verifiable product, result, capability
b) Only final product
c) Only documentation
d) Only software
**Answer: a) Any unique verifiable product, result,
capability**
**45. Milestones are:**
a) Significant points or events
b) Regular activities
c) Resources
d) Costs
**Answer: a) Significant points or events**
**46. Which is NOT a scope management process?**
a) Collect Requirements
b) Define Scope
c) Control Scope
d) Control Schedule
**Answer: d) Control Schedule**
**47. The scope management plan describes:**
a) How scope will be defined, validated, controlled
b) Detailed scope
c) Only WBS creation
d) Only scope verification
**Answer: a) How scope will be defined, validated,
controlled**
**48. Decomposition is used in creating:**
a) WBS
b) Network diagram
c) Budget
d) Risk register
**Answer: a) WBS**
**49. A work package typically represents work for:**
a) 1-10 days
b) 80 hours
c) Varies by project
d) Exactly one week
**Answer: c) Varies by project**
**50. Scope validation occurs:**
a) Throughout the project
b) Only at project end
c) Only during planning
d) Only during execution
**Answer: a) Throughout the project**
---
## **Part 3: Time & Cost Management (51-75)**
**51. The process of identifying and documenting
relationships between activities is:**
a) Define Activities
b) Sequence Activities
c) Estimate Activity Durations
d) Develop Schedule
**Answer: b) Sequence Activities**
**52. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) uses:**
a) Nodes for activities, arrows for relationships
b) Arrows for activities, nodes for events
c) Only Gantt charts
d) Only milestone charts
**Answer: a) Nodes for activities, arrows for
relationships**
**53. Finish-to-Start (FS) relationship means:**
a) Activity must finish before successor can start
b) Activity must start before successor can start
c) Activity must finish before successor can finish
d) Activity must start before successor can finish
**Answer: a) Activity must finish before successor can
start**
**54. A lag time is:**
a) Delay between activities
b) Acceleration between activities
c) Overlap between activities
d) Same as float
**Answer: a) Delay between activities**
**55. A lead time is:**
a) Delay between activities
b) Acceleration/overlap between activities
c) Waiting time
d) Same as slack
**Answer: b) Acceleration/overlap between activities**
**56. Critical Path is:**
a) Shortest path through network
b) Longest path through network
c) Path with most activities
d) Path with fewest activities
**Answer: b) Longest path through network**
**57. Activities on critical path have:**
a) Zero float
b) Maximum float
c) Negative float
d) Variable float
**Answer: a) Zero float**
**58. Float (slack) is:**
a) Amount of time activity can be delayed without delaying
project
b) Amount of time activity can be shortened
c) Amount of resources available
d) Amount of budget available
**Answer: a) Amount of time activity can be delayed without
delaying project**
**59. Which technique compresses schedule?**
a) Crashing
b) Fast tracking
c) Both a and b
d) Neither
**Answer: c) Both a and b**
**60. Crashing involves:**
a) Adding resources to critical path activities
b) Doing activities in parallel
c) Reducing scope
d) Extending schedule
**Answer: a) Adding resources to critical path activities**
**61. Fast tracking involves:**
a) Adding resources
b) Doing sequential activities in parallel
c) Reducing quality
d) Increasing budget
**Answer: b) Doing sequential activities in parallel**
**62. PERT uses which estimates?**
a) Optimistic, Pessimistic, Most Likely
b) Only one estimate
c) Only optimistic
d) Only pessimistic
**Answer: a) Optimistic, Pessimistic, Most Likely**
**63. PERT formula for expected duration is:**
a) (O + 4M + P) / 6
b) (O + M + P) / 3
c) (O + P) / 2
d) Only M
**Answer: a) (O + 4M + P) / 6**
**64. Gantt chart shows:**
a) Activities against time
b) Only dependencies
c) Only resources
d) Only costs
**Answer: a) Activities against time**
**65. Baseline schedule is:**
a) Original approved schedule
b) Current schedule
c) Proposed schedule
d) Ideal schedule
**Answer: a) Original approved schedule**
**66. Analogous estimating is:**
a) Top-down estimating using similar projects
b) Bottom-up estimating
c) Detailed estimating
d) Parametric estimating
**Answer: a) Top-down estimating using similar projects**
**67. Parametric estimating uses:**
a) Statistical relationship between variables
b) Expert judgment only
c) Actual costs only
d) No historical data
**Answer: a) Statistical relationship between variables**
**68. Bottom-up estimating:**
a) Estimates individual activities and aggregates
b) Uses overall project estimate
c) Uses similar projects only
d) Uses parametric models only
**Answer: a) Estimates individual activities and
aggregates**
**69. Contingency reserve is for:**
a) Known risks
b) Unknown risks
c) Both known and unknown
d) Neither
**Answer: a) Known risks**
**70. Management reserve is for:**
a) Known risks
b) Unknown risks
c) Both
d) Neither
**Answer: b) Unknown risks**
**71. S-curve shows:**
a) Cumulative costs over time
b) Individual costs
c) Only schedule
d) Only quality metrics
**Answer: a) Cumulative costs over time**
**72. Earned Value Management (EVM) integrates:**
a) Scope, schedule, cost
b) Only scope and schedule
c) Only schedule and cost
d) Only scope and cost
**Answer: a) Scope, schedule, cost**
**73. PV stands for:**
a) Planned Value
b) Present Value
c) Project Value
d) Performance Value
**Answer: a) Planned Value**
**74. EV stands for:**
a) Earned Value
b) Expected Value
c) Estimated Value
d) Economic Value
**Answer: a) Earned Value**
**75. AC stands for:**
a) Actual Cost
b) Approved Cost
c) Allocated Cost
d) Average Cost
**Answer: a) Actual Cost**
---
## **Part 4: Quality, Risk, & Stakeholder Management
(76-100)**
**76. Quality is:**
a) Conformance to requirements
b) Fitness for use
c) Both a and b
d) Only luxury features
**Answer: c) Both a and b**
**77. Quality management focuses on:**
a) Prevention over inspection
b) Inspection over prevention
c) Only final inspection
d) Only customer complaints
**Answer: a) Prevention over inspection**
**78. Cost of quality includes:**
a) Prevention costs
b) Appraisal costs
c) Failure costs
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**79. Continuous improvement is also called:**
a) Kaizen
b) Six Sigma
c) TQM
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**80. Pareto Chart is based on:**
a) 80/20 rule
b) Normal distribution
c) Random distribution
d) Linear regression
**Answer: a) 80/20 rule**
**81. Cause-and-effect diagram is also called:**
a) Fishbone diagram
b) Ishikawa diagram
c) Both a and b
d) Neither
**Answer: c) Both a and b**
**82. Control charts show:**
a) Process stability
b) Cost performance
c) Schedule performance
d) Resource utilization
**Answer: a) Process stability**
**83. Six Sigma aims for:**
a) 3.4 defects per million opportunities
b) 10 defects per thousand
c) 1% defect rate
d) 5% defect rate
**Answer: a) 3.4 defects per million opportunities**
**84. Risk is:**
a) Uncertainty that can affect objectives
b) Certain negative event
c) Only opportunity
d) Only threat
**Answer: a) Uncertainty that can affect objectives**
**85. Positive risk is called:**
a) Opportunity
b) Threat
c) Problem
d) Issue
**Answer: a) Opportunity**
**86. Negative risk is called:**
a) Opportunity
b) Threat
c) Benefit
d) Advantage
**Answer: b) Threat**
**87. Risk register contains:**
a) Identified risks
b) Risk responses
c) Risk owners
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**88. Quantitative risk analysis uses:**
a) Numerical analysis
b) Expert judgment only
c) Checklists only
d) No data
**Answer: a) Numerical analysis**
**89. Expected Monetary Value (EMV) is:**
a) Probability × Impact
b) Only probability
c) Only impact
d) Risk score
**Answer: a) Probability × Impact**
**90. Risk response strategies for threats include:**
a) Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept
b) Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept
c) Only accept
d) Only avoid
**Answer: a) Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept**
**91. Risk response strategies for opportunities include:**
a) Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept
b) Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept
c) Only accept
d) Only exploit
**Answer: b) Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept**
**92. Buying insurance is an example of:**
a) Risk avoidance
b) Risk transfer
c) Risk mitigation
d) Risk acceptance
**Answer: b) Risk transfer**
**93. Stakeholder analysis identifies:**
a) Interest, influence, impact
b) Only names
c) Only roles
d) Only requirements
**Answer: a) Interest, influence, impact**
**94. Power/Interest grid categorizes stakeholders as:**
a) Manage closely, Keep satisfied, Keep informed, Monitor
b) Only important and not important
c) Only internal and external
d) Only supportive and resistant
**Answer: a) Manage closely, Keep satisfied, Keep informed,
Monitor**
**95. Communication methods include:**
a) Push, Pull, Interactive
b) Only email
c) Only meetings
d) Only reports
**Answer: a) Push, Pull, Interactive**
**96. Communication channels formula: n(n-1)/2 calculates:**
a) Number of potential communication channels
b) Number of tasks
c) Number of resources
d) Number of risks
**Answer: a) Number of potential communication channels**
**97. RACI matrix defines:**
a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
b) Only responsible
c) Only accountable
d) Only consulted
**Answer: a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed**
**98. Procurement management involves:**
a) Acquiring goods/services from outside
b) Only internal resources
c) Only hiring staff
d) Only budgeting
**Answer: a) Acquiring goods/services from outside**
**99. Fixed price contract:**
a) Seller bears cost risk
b) Buyer bears cost risk
c) Risk is shared
d) No risk
**Answer: a) Seller bears cost risk**
**100. Cost reimbursable contract:**
a) Seller bears cost risk
b) Buyer bears cost risk
c) Risk is shared
d) No risk
**Answer: b) Buyer bears cost risk**
---
## **Bonus Questions (101-110)**
**101. Agile project management emphasizes:**
a) Flexibility and iterative delivery
b) Rigid planning
c) Only documentation
d) Only contract management
**Answer: a) Flexibility and iterative delivery**
**102. Scrum is:**
a) An agile framework
b) A traditional methodology
c) A risk management tool
d) A quality standard
**Answer: a) An agile framework**
**103. Sprint in Scrum typically lasts:**
a) 1-4 weeks
b) 1-6 months
c) 1 day
d) 1 year
**Answer: a) 1-4 weeks**
**104. Kanban uses:**
a) Visual workflow management
b) Only Gantt charts
c) Only critical path
d) Only earned value
**Answer: a) Visual workflow management**
**105. PRINCE2 stands for:**
a) Projects IN Controlled Environments
b) Professional IN Construction Environment
c) Program IN Corporate Environment
d) Project IN Critical Environment
**Answer: a) Projects IN Controlled Environments**
**106. Waterfall methodology is:**
a) Sequential and linear
b) Iterative and incremental
c) Only for software
d) Only for construction
**Answer: a) Sequential and linear**
**107. A kick-off meeting occurs during:**
a) Initiating phase
b) Planning phase
c) Executing phase
d) Closing phase
**Answer: b) Planning phase**
**108. Variance analysis compares:**
a) Planned vs. actual performance
b) Only planned values
c) Only actual values
d) Only future estimates
**Answer: a) Planned vs. actual performance**
**109. A project is considered successful when:**
a) It meets business objectives
b) It is delivered on time and budget
c) Stakeholders are satisfied
d) All of the above
**Answer: d) All of the above**
**110. Lessons learned should be:**
a) Documented throughout project
b) Only at project end
c) Only for failed projects
d) Never documented
**Answer: a) Documented throughout project**
---
## **Advanced Concepts (111-120)**
**111. Monte Carlo simulation is used for:**
a) Risk analysis
b) Quality control
c) Stakeholder management
d) Communication planning
**Answer: a) Risk analysis**
**112. NPV stands for:**
a) Net Present Value
b) Net Project Value
c) New Project Valuation
d) Net Performance Value
**Answer: a) Net Present Value**
**113. IRR stands for:**
a) Internal Rate of Return
b) Internal Risk Ratio
c) Integrated Resource Report
d) Interim Review Report
**Answer: a) Internal Rate of Return**
**114. Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR) of 1.5 means:**
a) Benefits exceed costs
b) Costs exceed benefits
c) Break-even
d) Cannot determine
**Answer: a) Benefits exceed costs**
**115. A project with NPV > 0 should be:**
a) Accepted
b) Rejected
c) Re-evaluated
d) Ignored
**Answer: a) Accepted**
**116. SWOT analysis examines:**
a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
b) Only strengths
c) Only weaknesses
d) Only opportunities
**Answer: a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats**
**117. PESTLE analysis examines:**
a) Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal,
Environmental
b) Only political factors
c) Only economic factors
d) Only technological factors
**Answer: a) Political, Economic, Social, Technological,
Legal, Environmental**
**118. The Delphi technique is used for:**
a) Expert judgment gathering anonymously
b) Scheduling
c) Budgeting
d) Quality control
**Answer: a) Expert judgment gathering anonymously**
**119. A work breakdown structure dictionary contains:**
a) Detailed description of work packages
b) Only work package names
c) Only costs
d) Only durations
**Answer: a) Detailed description of work packages**
**120. Change control board (CCB) is responsible for:**
a) Reviewing and approving changes
b) Creating changes
c) Implementing changes
d) Ignoring changes
**Answer: a) Reviewing and approving changes**
PRINCIPLES OF E-BUSINESS
**Part 1: E-Business
Fundamentals & Models (1-25)**
**1. E-business stands for:**
a) Electronic business
b) Effective business
c) Efficient business
d) Essential business
**Answer: a) Electronic business**
**2. The main difference between e-commerce and e-business
is:**
a) E-commerce is broader than e-business
b) E-business includes all business processes
c) E-commerce includes internal processes
d) They are identical
**Answer: b) E-business includes all business processes**
**3. Which of these is NOT an e-business model?**
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2B
d) P2P
**Answer: d) P2P** (P2P is a technology protocol, not
primarily an e-business model)
**4. B2B stands for:**
a) Business-to-Business
b) Buyer-to-Buyer
c) Business-to-Buyer
d) Buyer-to-Business
**Answer: a) Business-to-Business**
**5. B2C stands for:**
a) Business-to-Consumer
b) Business-to-Company
c) Buyer-to-Consumer
d) Business-to-Commerce
**Answer: a) Business-to-Consumer**
**6. C2C stands for:**
a) Consumer-to-Consumer
b) Company-to-Company
c) Consumer-to-Company
d) Company-to-Consumer
**Answer: a) Consumer-to-Consumer**
**7. Amazon.com is primarily a:**
a) B2B model
b) B2C model
c) C2C model
d) G2C model
**Answer: b) B2C model**
**8. Alibaba.com is primarily a:**
a) B2B model
b) B2C model
c) C2C model
d) G2C model
**Answer: a) B2B model**
**9. eBay is primarily a:**
a) B2B model
b) B2C model
c) C2C model
d) G2C model
**Answer: c) C2C model**
**10. G2C stands for:**
a) Government-to-Citizen
b) Government-to-Company
c) Group-to-Consumer
d) Global-to-Citizen
**Answer: a) Government-to-Citizen**
**11. B2G stands for:**
a) Business-to-Government
b) Business-to-Global
c) Buyer-to-Government
d) Business-to-Group
**Answer: a) Business-to-Government**
**12. The "Long Tail" concept refers to:**
a) Selling fewer popular items in large quantities
b) Selling many niche items in small quantities
c) Only selling bestsellers
d) Physical store strategy
**Answer: b) Selling many niche items in small quantities**
**13. Disintermediation means:**
a) Adding more intermediaries
b) Removing intermediaries from supply chain
c) Creating new intermediaries
d) Only using physical stores
**Answer: b) Removing intermediaries from supply chain**
**14. Reintermediation means:**
a) Removing all intermediaries
b) Creating new types of intermediaries
c) Eliminating online channels
d) Only using traditional channels
**Answer: b) Creating new types of intermediaries**
**15. Which is NOT an e-business revenue model?**
a) Advertising
b) Subscription
c) Transaction fee
d) Fixed location
**Answer: d) Fixed location**
**16. The freemium model offers:**
a) Free basic services, paid premium features
b) Everything free
c) Everything paid
d) Only physical products
**Answer: a) Free basic services, paid premium features**
**17. Affiliate marketing is based on:**
a) Commission for referrals
b) Fixed salary
c) Hourly wages
d) No payment
**Answer: a) Commission for referrals**
**18. Which model charges recurring fees for access?**
a) Subscription model
b) Transaction model
c) Advertising model
d) Freemium model
**Answer: a) Subscription model**
**19. Digital goods can be:**
a) Delivered electronically
b) Only physical items
c) Only services
d) Only tangible products
**Answer: a) Delivered electronically**
**20. The first secure online transaction was conducted
in:**
a) 1971
b) 1984
c) 1994
d) 2001
**Answer: c) 1994** (First online purchase: pizza from Pizza
Hut)
**21. Which was the first product sold online?**
a) A book
b) A CD
c) A pizza
d) A car
**Answer: c) A pizza** (August 1994, Pizza Hut)
**22. EDI stands for:**
a) Electronic Data Interchange
b) Electronic Digital Interface
c) Electronic Document Integration
d) Electronic Data Integration
**Answer: a) Electronic Data Interchange**
**23. EDI was first used in:**
a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 1990s
d) 2000s
**Answer: a) 1960s**
**24. The World Wide Web was invented by:**
a) Tim Berners-Lee
b) Bill Gates
c) Steve Jobs
d) Mark Zuckerberg
**Answer: a) Tim Berners-Lee**
**25. The year the World Wide Web became publicly
available:**
a) 1989
b) 1991
c) 1993
d) 1995
**Answer: c) 1993**
---
## **Part 2: Technology Infrastructure & Security
(26-50)**
**26. HTTP stands for:**
a) HyperText Transfer Protocol
b) HyperText Transmission Protocol
c) High Text Transfer Protocol
d) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
**Answer: a) HyperText Transfer Protocol**
**27. HTTPS stands for:**
a) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure
b) HyperText Transfer Protocol Standard
c) High Text Transfer Protocol Secure
d) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol Secure
**Answer: a) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure**
**28. SSL stands for:**
a) Secure Sockets Layer
b) Secure System Layer
c) System Security Layer
d) Socket Security Layer
**Answer: a) Secure Sockets Layer**
**29. TLS stands for:**
a) Transport Layer Security
b) Transfer Layer Security
c) Transport Link Security
d) Transfer Link Security
**Answer: a) Transport Layer Security**
**30. SSL/TLS certificates are issued by:**
a) Certificate Authorities (CA)
b) Internet Service Providers
c) Web browsers
d) Operating systems
**Answer: a) Certificate Authorities (CA)**
**31. A digital certificate contains:**
a) Public key and identity information
b) Private key only
c) Password only
d) Credit card information
**Answer: a) Public key and identity information**
**32. Encryption converts plain text to:**
a) Cipher text
b) Simple text
c) HTML text
d) XML text
**Answer: a) Cipher text**
**33. Symmetric encryption uses:**
a) Same key for encryption and decryption
b) Different keys for encryption and decryption
c) No keys
d) Multiple keys
**Answer: a) Same key for encryption and decryption**
**34. Asymmetric encryption uses:**
a) Same key for encryption and decryption
b) Different keys for encryption and decryption
c) No keys
d) Random keys
**Answer: b) Different keys for encryption and decryption**
**35. Public key is used for:**
a) Encryption only
b) Decryption only
c) Both encryption and decryption
d) Neither
**Answer: a) Encryption only**
**36. Private key is used for:**
a) Encryption only
b) Decryption only
c) Both encryption and decryption
d) Neither
**Answer: b) Decryption only**
**37. Firewall is used for:**
a) Network security
b) Website design
c) Payment processing
d) Inventory management
**Answer: a) Network security**
**38. VPN stands for:**
a) Virtual Private Network
b) Virtual Public Network
c) Verified Private Network
d) Virtual Payment Network
**Answer: a) Virtual Private Network**
**39. Two-factor authentication requires:**
a) Password only
b) Two passwords
c) Two different authentication methods
d) No authentication
**Answer: c) Two different authentication methods**
**40. Phishing is:**
a) Legitimate email
b) Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information
c) Type of firewall
d) Encryption method
**Answer: b) Fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive
information**
**41. Which is NOT a payment gateway?**
a) PayPal
b) Stripe
c) Authorize.net
d) WordPress
**Answer: d) WordPress**
**42. PCI DSS stands for:**
a) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard
b) Payment Card Internet Data Security Standard
c) Personal Card Information Data Security Standard
d) Payment Card Industry Digital Security Standard
**Answer: a) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard**
**43. PCI DSS compliance is required for:**
a) All websites
b) Only social media sites
c) Businesses handling credit card information
d) Only government websites
**Answer: c) Businesses handling credit card information**
**44. 3D Secure adds extra layer for:**
a) Online card payments
b) Bank transfers
c) Cash payments
d) Check payments
**Answer: a) Online card payments**
**45. Examples of 3D Secure include:**
a) Verified by Visa, MasterCard SecureCode
b) PayPal, Stripe
c) SSL, TLS
d) HTTP, HTTPS
**Answer: a) Verified by Visa, MasterCard SecureCode**
**46. Tokenization replaces sensitive data with:**
a) Unique identification symbols
b) Original data
c) Encryption keys
d) Passwords
**Answer: a) Unique identification symbols**
**47. Cloud computing service models include:**
a) IaaS, PaaS, SaaS
b) Only IaaS
c) Only PaaS
d) Only SaaS
**Answer: a) IaaS, PaaS, SaaS**
**48. SaaS stands for:**
a) Software as a Service
b) System as a Service
c) Security as a Service
d) Storage as a Service
**Answer: a) Software as a Service**
**49. IaaS stands for:**
a) Infrastructure as a Service
b) Internet as a Service
c) Information as a Service
d) Integration as a Service
**Answer: a) Infrastructure as a Service**
**50. PaaS stands for:**
a) Platform as a Service
b) Processing as a Service
c) Payment as a Service
d) Protocol as a Service
**Answer: a) Platform as a Service**
---
## **Part 3: Marketing & Customer Relationship (51-75)**
**51. SEO stands for:**
a) Search Engine Optimization
b) Search Engine Operation
c) System Engine Optimization
d) Search Engine Organization
**Answer: a) Search Engine Optimization**
**52. SEM stands for:**
a) Search Engine Marketing
b) Search Engine Management
c) System Engine Marketing
d) Search Engine Monitoring
**Answer: a) Search Engine Marketing**
**53. The main difference between SEO and SEM is:**
a) SEO is paid, SEM is organic
b) SEO is organic, SEM includes paid
c) Both are same
d) SEO is for email, SEM is for search
**Answer: b) SEO is organic, SEM includes paid**
**54. PPC stands for:**
a) Pay Per Click
b) Pay Per Customer
c) Pay Per Conversion
d) Pay Per Call
**Answer: a) Pay Per Click**
**55. CTR stands for:**
a) Click Through Rate
b) Call Through Rate
c) Conversion Through Rate
d) Cost Through Rate
**Answer: a) Click Through Rate**
**56. Conversion rate measures:**
a) Visitors who complete desired action
b) Total visitors
c) Page views
d) Time on site
**Answer: a) Visitors who complete desired action**
**57. A/B testing compares:**
a) Two versions of web page
b) Two different products
c) Two companies
d) Two search engines
**Answer: a) Two versions of web page**
**58. CRM stands for:**
a) Customer Relationship Management
b) Customer Retention Marketing
c) Customer Revenue Management
d) Customer Response Management
**Answer: a) Customer Relationship Management**
**59. ERP stands for:**
a) Enterprise Resource Planning
b) Enterprise Relationship Planning
c) Electronic Resource Planning
d) Enterprise Revenue Planning
**Answer: a) Enterprise Resource Planning**
**60. SCM stands for:**
a) Supply Chain Management
b) Sales Chain Management
c) Supply Customer Management
d) System Chain Management
**Answer: a) Supply Chain Management**
**61. Personalization in e-business means:**
a) Treating all customers same
b) Customizing experience for individual
c) Only using generic content
d) Ignoring customer preferences
**Answer: b) Customizing experience for individual**
**62. Recommendation engines use:**
a) Collaborative filtering
b) Content-based filtering
c) Both a and b
d) Neither
**Answer: c) Both a and b**
**63. Cookie is:**
a) Small text file stored on user's computer
b) Type of virus
c) Payment method
d) Security protocol
**Answer: a) Small text file stored on user's computer**
**64. First-party cookies are set by:**
a) Visited website
b) Third-party advertisers
c) Government
d) Internet provider
**Answer: a) Visited website**
**65. Third-party cookies are set by:**
a) Visited website
b) Other domains
c) User's browser
d) Operating system
**Answer: b) Other domains**
**66. GDPR stands for:**
a) General Data Protection Regulation
b) General Data Privacy Regulation
c) Global Data Protection Regulation
d) Global Data Privacy Regulation
**Answer: a) General Data Protection Regulation**
**67. GDPR applies to:**
a) Only EU companies
b) All companies processing EU citizens' data
c) Only US companies
d) Only Asian companies
**Answer: b) All companies processing EU citizens' data**
**68. Email marketing requires:**
a) Spamming everyone
b) Permission from recipients
c) No permission needed
d) Only business emails
**Answer: b) Permission from recipients**
**69. CAN-SPAM Act regulates:**
a) Email marketing in US
b) Social media in EU
c) Search engines globally
d) Payment gateways
**Answer: a) Email marketing in US**
**70. Social media marketing includes:**
a) Facebook, Twitter, Instagram
b) Only email
c) Only websites
d) Only print media
**Answer: a) Facebook, Twitter, Instagram**
**71. Influencer marketing uses:**
a) Celebrities or popular figures
b) Only company employees
c) Only paid actors
d) No real people
**Answer: a) Celebrities or popular figures**
**72. Content marketing focuses on:**
a) Creating valuable content
b) Only selling products
c) Only advertisements
d) Only price discounts
**Answer: a) Creating valuable content**
**73. Analytics tools help:**
a) Track website performance
b) Design websites
c) Process payments
d) Manage inventory
**Answer: a) Track website performance**
**74. Google Analytics is used for:**
a) Website analytics
b) Email marketing
c) Payment processing
d) Inventory management
**Answer: a) Website analytics**
**75. KPI stands for:**
a) Key Performance Indicator
b) Key Process Indicator
c) Key Profit Indicator
d) Key Product Indicator
**Answer: a) Key Performance Indicator**
---
## **Part 4: Legal, Ethical & Strategic Aspects
(76-100)**
**76. Intellectual Property includes:**
a) Copyright, Trademark, Patent
b) Only physical property
c) Only digital files
d) Only business ideas
**Answer: a) Copyright, Trademark, Patent**
**77. Copyright protects:**
a) Original creative works
b) Business names
c) Inventions
d) Business methods
**Answer: a) Original creative works**
**78. Trademark protects:**
a) Brand names, logos, slogans
b) Literary works
c) Software code
d) Business processes
**Answer: a) Brand names, logos, slogans**
**79. Patent protects:**
a) Inventions
b) Business names
c) Artistic works
d) Customer lists
**Answer: a) Inventions**
**80. Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) addresses:**
a) Digital copyright issues
b) Email marketing
c) Payment systems
d) Website design
**Answer: a) Digital copyright issues**
**81. Cyberlaw refers to:**
a) Legal issues related to internet
b) Only criminal law
c) Only corporate law
d) Only tax law
**Answer: a) Legal issues related to internet**
**82. Jurisdiction in e-business determines:**
a) Which laws apply
b) Only payment methods
c) Only website design
d) Only marketing channels
**Answer: a) Which laws apply**
**83. Taxation of e-business is complex because:**
a) Cross-border transactions
b) Only local transactions
c) Only physical goods
d) Only services
**Answer: a) Cross-border transactions**
**84. Privacy policy should disclose:**
a) How customer data is used
b) Only company revenue
c) Only employee information
d) Only product prices
**Answer: a) How customer data is used**
**85. Terms of Service (ToS) define:**
a) Rules for using website/service
b) Only payment terms
c) Only delivery terms
d) Only return policy
**Answer: a) Rules for using website/service**
**86. Dispute resolution in e-business includes:**
a) Online dispute resolution (ODR)
b) Only court litigation
c) Only arbitration
d) Only mediation
**Answer: a) Online dispute resolution (ODR)**
**87. E-signature is legally valid in many countries under
acts like:**
a) ESIGN Act (US)
b) Only paper signatures
c) Only handwritten signatures
d) Only notarized signatures
**Answer: a) ESIGN Act (US)**
**88. Ethical issues in e-business include:**
a) Privacy, security, intellectual property
b) Only pricing
c) Only product quality
d) Only delivery time
**Answer: a) Privacy, security, intellectual property**
**89. Green computing refers to:**
a) Environmentally sustainable computing
b) Only using green color
c) Only new computers
d) Only software
**Answer: a) Environmentally sustainable computing**
**90. Digital divide refers to:**
a) Gap between those with/without internet access
b) Only speed differences
c) Only device differences
d) Only age differences
**Answer: a) Gap between those with/without internet
access**
**91. SWOT analysis examines:**
a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
b) Only strengths
c) Only weaknesses
d) Only opportunities
**Answer: a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats**
**92. PEST analysis examines:**
a) Political, Economic, Social, Technological
b) Only political
c) Only economic
d) Only social
**Answer: a) Political, Economic, Social, Technological**
**93. Value chain analysis examines:**
a) Activities adding value to product/service
b) Only costs
c) Only revenues
d) Only profits
**Answer: a) Activities adding value to product/service**
**94. Porter's Five Forces analyze:**
a) Industry competitiveness
b) Only suppliers
c) Only customers
d) Only competitors
**Answer: a) Industry competitiveness**
**95. The five forces are:**
a) Competition, New entrants, Substitutes, Suppliers,
Customers
b) Only competition
c) Only suppliers
d) Only customers
**Answer: a) Competition, New entrants, Substitutes,
Suppliers, Customers**
**96. Business-to-employee (B2E) refers to:**
a) Company interactions with employees
b) Only with customers
c) Only with suppliers
d) Only with government
**Answer: a) Company interactions with employees**
**97. M-commerce stands for:**
a) Mobile commerce
b) Money commerce
c) Marketing commerce
d) Management commerce
**Answer: a) Mobile commerce**
**98. Omnichannel retailing provides:**
a) Seamless experience across channels
b) Only online channel
c) Only physical channel
d) Only mobile channel
**Answer: a) Seamless experience across channels**
**99. Big data in e-business refers to:**
a) Large volumes of data for analysis
b) Only small data
c) Only structured data
d) Only customer data
**Answer: a) Large volumes of data for analysis**
**100. Artificial Intelligence (AI) in e-business can be
used for:**
a) Chatbots, recommendation systems
b) Only website design
c) Only payment processing
d) Only inventory management
**Answer: a) Chatbots, recommendation systems**
---
## **Bonus Questions (101-110)**
**101. UPI stands for:**
a) Unified Payments Interface
b) Universal Payments Interface
c) Unified Payment Internet
d) Universal Payment Internet
**Answer: a) Unified Payments Interface**
**102. RFID stands for:**
a) Radio Frequency Identification
b) Radio Frequency Internet Device
c) Radio Frequency Identification Device
d) Radio Frequency Internet Data
**Answer: a) Radio Frequency Identification**
**103. IoT stands for:**
a) Internet of Things
b) Internet of Technology
c) Internet of Transactions
d) Internet of Trade
**Answer: a) Internet of Things**
**104. Blockchain is used in e-business for:**
a) Secure transactions
b) Website design
c) Email marketing
d) Social media
**Answer: a) Secure transactions**
**105. Cryptocurrency is:**
a) Digital currency using cryptography
b) Only physical currency
c) Only credit cards
d) Only bank transfers
**Answer: a) Digital currency using cryptography**
**106. The first cryptocurrency was:**
a) Bitcoin
b) Ethereum
c) Litecoin
d) Ripple
**Answer: a) Bitcoin**
**107. Bitcoin was created in:**
a) 2008
b) 2010
c) 2012
d) 2014
**Answer: a) 2008**
**108. Satoshi Nakamoto is:**
a) Creator of Bitcoin
b) Creator of Amazon
c) Creator of Google
d) Creator of Facebook
**Answer: a) Creator of Bitcoin**
**109. Smart contracts are:**
a) Self-executing contracts with terms in code
b) Paper contracts only
c) Verbal contracts
d) Email agreements
**Answer: a) Self-executing contracts with terms in code**
**110. DApp stands for:**
a) Decentralized Application
b) Digital Application
c) Desktop Application
d) Dynamic Application
**Answer: a) Decentralized Application**
---
## **Emerging Trends (111-120)**
**111. Voice commerce uses:**
a) Voice assistants for shopping
b) Only text
c) Only images
d) Only videos
**Answer: a) Voice assistants for shopping**
**112. AR stands for:**
a) Augmented Reality
b) Artificial Reality
c) Advanced Reality
d) Alternative Reality
**Answer: a) Augmented Reality**
**113. VR stands for:**
a) Virtual Reality
b) Visual Reality
c) Verified Reality
d) Variable Reality
**Answer: a) Virtual Reality**
**114. Social commerce involves:**
a) Shopping through social media
b) Only traditional stores
c) Only websites
d) Only catalogs
**Answer: a) Shopping through social media**
**115. Dropshipping is a model where:**
a) Seller doesn't keep inventory
b) Seller keeps all inventory
c) Only manufacturer sells
d) Only wholesaler sells
**Answer: a) Seller doesn't keep inventory**
**116. Subscription box services use:**
a) Recurring delivery of curated products
b) Only one-time purchase
c) Only digital products
d) Only services
**Answer: a) Recurring delivery of curated products**
**117. Marketplace model connects:**
a) Buyers and sellers
b) Only buyers
c) Only sellers
d) Only manufacturers
**Answer: a) Buyers and sellers**
**118. On-demand economy provides:**
a) Immediate access to goods/services
b) Only scheduled services
c) Only monthly services
d) Only yearly services
**Answer: a) Immediate access to goods/services**
**119. Sharing economy involves:**
a) Sharing access to goods/services
b) Only owning
c) Only buying
d) Only selling
**Answer: a) Sharing access to goods/services**
**120. Examples of sharing economy include:**
a) Uber, Airbnb
b) Only Amazon
c) Only eBay
d) Only Walmart
**Answer: a) Uber, Airbnb**
